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MFA exit exam questions and answers — Set 9 — Medical First Aid

Set 9 of the Medical First Aid (MFA) exit exam bank — 30 of 675 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

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Set 9 — 30 MFA exit exam questions with answers

1. Which statement about hypothermia and frostbite is correct?

  • A. Every hypothermia patient also has frostbite
  • B. Hypothermia and frostbite can occur separately
  • C. Frostbite only occurs in warm climates
  • D. Hypothermia means freezing of the fingers only
Answer: B — Hypothermia and frostbite can occur separately
Hypothermia is a fall in core body temperature below 35°C, while frostbite is local freezing of tissues. A person can have either condition without the other, so frostbite treatment is needed only where it is present.

2. What is the proper treatment for frostbite?

  • A. Rewarming the affected part rapidly in warm water
  • B. Rubbing the affected area with ice or snow
  • C. Rubbing the affected area briskly to restore circulation
  • D. Wrapping the area tightly in warm cloths
Answer: A — Rewarming the affected part rapidly in warm water
Frostbitten parts should be rewarmed rapidly in warm water of about 37-40°C once there is no risk of refreezing. Rubbing damages frozen tissue and tight wrapping restricts circulation.

3. Heat exhaustion is caused by excessive ____.

  • A. Loss of body temperature
  • B. Loss of water and salt from the body
  • C. Gain in body temperature
  • D. Intake of water when working or exercising
Answer: B — Loss of water and salt from the body
Heat exhaustion results from heavy sweating in hot conditions, which drains the body of water and salt. The casualty becomes pale, clammy and weak, and is treated by rest in a cool place and replacing fluids.

4. One of the principal dangers inherent in liquefied petroleum gas is ____.

  • A. As it warms up it becomes heavier than air
  • B. The way it reacts with sea water
  • C. The strong odour it produces
  • D. Its low temperature causes frostbite or freezing
Answer: D — Its low temperature causes frostbite or freezing
LPG is stored as a liquid at very low temperature or under pressure. Contact with the liquid or escaping cold vapour causes cold burns and frostbite, so protective clothing and gloves are required when handling it.

5. When treating a third-degree burn, you should:

  • A. Activate emergency medical services or get the patient to hospital urgently
  • B. Apply butter or oil to the burn
  • C. Break the blisters to release the fluid
  • D. Remove clothing stuck to the burn
Answer: A — Activate emergency medical services or get the patient to hospital urgently
Third-degree (full-thickness) burns destroy all skin layers and always need hospital treatment. Cool, cover with a clean non-fluffy dressing, treat for shock and arrange urgent medical help; never apply grease or remove stuck clothing.

6. How can you help someone who is having a seizure?

  • A. Keep them safe from injury by clearing the area and cushioning the head
  • B. Put something in their mouth to stop them biting the tongue
  • C. Hold them down firmly to stop the movements
  • D. Pour water on their face to wake them
Answer: A — Keep them safe from injury by clearing the area and cushioning the head
During a seizure, protect the casualty from injury by moving hard objects away and cushioning the head. Do not restrain them or put anything in the mouth; place in the recovery position once jerking stops.

7. When performing chest compressions, where on the casualty's body do you place your hands?

  • A. Heel of one hand on the centre of the chest (lower half of the breastbone), with the other hand on top
  • B. On the upper part of the breastbone near the throat
  • C. On the left side of the chest over the ribs
  • D. On the abdomen just below the ribs
Answer: A — Heel of one hand on the centre of the chest (lower half of the breastbone), with the other hand on top
Compressions are given with the heel of one hand on the centre of the chest, the lower half of the sternum, the other hand on top and fingers interlocked, keeping off the ribs and the abdomen.

8. After applying a compression bandage, which sign shows that the bandage may be too tight?

  • A. Swelling below the bandage and severe pain
  • B. Warm, pink skin below the bandage
  • C. Normal pulse below the bandage
  • D. The bandage feels secure and comfortable
Answer: A — Swelling below the bandage and severe pain
A bandage that is too tight restricts circulation, causing swelling, severe pain, pale or bluish cold skin and numbness beyond it. It must then be loosened and circulation rechecked.

9. Which medicine is commonly used to treat fever?

  • A. Paracetamol
  • B. Antacid
  • C. Antihistamine eye drops
  • D. Laxative
Answer: A — Paracetamol
Paracetamol is an antipyretic and painkiller that lowers body temperature, and is the standard medicine for fever in the ship's medicine chest, together with rest, fluids and cooling.

10. Which of the following is the priority when treating fractured ribs in a conscious casualty?

  • A. Help the casualty into a half-sitting position
  • B. Lay the casualty flat on their back
  • C. Bind the chest tightly with bandages
  • D. Make the casualty take deep breaths
Answer: A — Help the casualty into a half-sitting position
A half-sitting position, leaning towards the injured side, makes breathing easier and more comfortable. The arm on the injured side may be supported in a sling. Tight chest binding is no longer recommended as it restricts breathing.

11. You are called to a casualty who has an abdominal wound. Which is the correct position for the casualty?

  • A. Flat on their back with knees bent and supported
  • B. Sitting fully upright
  • C. Face down
  • D. Standing and walking
Answer: A — Flat on their back with knees bent and supported
Lying the casualty on their back with the knees raised and supported relaxes the abdominal muscles, reduces strain on the wound and helps prevent it from gaping open or abdominal contents protruding.

12. How long should you take to check whether an unconscious casualty is breathing normally?

  • A. No more than 10 seconds
  • B. At least 30 seconds
  • C. 1 minute
  • D. 2 minutes
Answer: A — No more than 10 seconds
Resuscitation guidelines limit the breathing check to no more than 10 seconds so that CPR, if needed, is not delayed. If in doubt whether breathing is normal, act as if it is not and start CPR.

13. HIV/AIDS is a:

  • A. Sexually transmitted and blood-borne disease
  • B. Disease spread by mosquito bites
  • C. Disease spread by contaminated food
  • D. Disease spread by casual contact such as handshakes
Answer: A — Sexually transmitted and blood-borne disease
HIV is transmitted through sexual contact, infected blood (including shared needles) and from mother to child. It is not spread by casual contact. First aiders protect themselves by wearing gloves when handling blood and body fluids.

14. ____ are a useful method of temporarily immobilising limb fractures.

  • A. Splints
  • B. Tourniquets
  • C. Ice packs
  • D. Hot compresses
Answer: A — Splints
Splints support an injured limb and prevent movement of the broken bone ends, reducing pain, bleeding and further damage while the casualty is moved or awaits medical care.

15. A fracture is defined as

  • A. A break or crack in a bone
  • B. A tear of a ligament
  • C. Displacement of a joint
  • D. Bruising of muscle tissue
Answer: A — A break or crack in a bone
A fracture is any break, crack or discontinuity in a bone. A torn ligament is a sprain, displacement of a joint is a dislocation, and bruising is a soft-tissue injury; all may accompany a fracture but are not fractures themselves.

16. If you are unable or not trained to give rescue breaths, which statement about CPR is correct?

  • A. Give continuous chest compressions only
  • B. Do not attempt CPR at all
  • C. Give rescue breaths only
  • D. Wait for trained help before touching the casualty
Answer: A — Give continuous chest compressions only
Compression-only (hands-only) CPR is acceptable and recommended when the rescuer is untrained or unwilling to give breaths. Continuous compressions at 100-120 per minute maintain some blood flow to the brain and heart until help and an AED arrive.

17. What rate of chest compressions should you aim for during CPR?

  • A. 100 to 120 per minute
  • B. 60 to 80 per minute
  • C. 80 to 90 per minute
  • D. 140 to 160 per minute
Answer: A — 100 to 120 per minute
Current AHA and ERC guidelines specify a compression rate of 100 to 120 per minute for adults, children and infants. Slower rates produce inadequate blood flow, while rates above 120 reduce depth and allow too little time for the heart to refill.

18. It is correct to give mouth-to-nose respiration to a casualty when

  • A. A tight seal around the lips cannot be obtained
  • B. The casualty is breathing normally
  • C. The casualty has a blocked nose
  • D. The casualty is conscious and talking
Answer: A — A tight seal around the lips cannot be obtained
Mouth-to-nose ventilation is an accepted alternative when mouth-to-mouth is impossible, such as with facial or jaw injuries, an inability to seal around the lips, or when rescuing in water. The mouth is held closed while breaths are given through the nose.

19. Which artery is compressed to stop bleeding in the upper arm?

  • A. Brachial artery
  • B. Femoral artery
  • C. Carotid artery
  • D. Radial artery
Answer: A — Brachial artery
The brachial artery runs along the inner side of the upper arm and can be pressed against the humerus to control severe bleeding from the arm. The femoral artery is used for the leg, the carotid is in the neck and the radial is at the wrist.

20. When giving rescue breaths to an infant, you should

  • A. Give small, gentle breaths just enough to make the chest rise
  • B. Blow as hard as possible into the mouth
  • C. Give breaths through the nose only, with the mouth held closed
  • D. Give one long breath lasting five seconds
Answer: A — Give small, gentle breaths just enough to make the chest rise
An infant's lungs are small and fragile, so breaths should be gentle puffs, covering both mouth and nose, each lasting about one second and just enough to make the chest visibly rise. Forceful breaths can damage the lungs and inflate the stomach.

21. To assess the pulse of an adult casualty, you should feel the ____ for how long?

  • A. Carotid pulse, for at least 5 but not more than 10 seconds
  • B. Radial pulse, for 30 seconds
  • C. Brachial pulse, for 1 minute
  • D. Femoral pulse, for 2 minutes
Answer: A — Carotid pulse, for at least 5 but not more than 10 seconds
In adults the carotid pulse in the neck is the most reliable central pulse. Trained rescuers should check it for at least 5 but no more than 10 seconds; if a definite pulse is not felt, chest compressions should be started.

22. After you assess a casualty's pulse and do not feel one, what is the next step?

  • A. Start high-quality chest compressions at 100-120 per minute
  • B. Check the pulse again for one minute
  • C. Place the casualty in the recovery position
  • D. Give rescue breaths only
Answer: A — Start high-quality chest compressions at 100-120 per minute
If no definite pulse is felt within 10 seconds in an unresponsive casualty not breathing normally, cardiac arrest is assumed and high-quality chest compressions are started immediately at 100-120 per minute and 5-6 cm depth, with an AED used as soon as available.

23. During CPR, each rescue breath should be delivered over about

  • A. 1 second
  • B. 3 seconds
  • C. 5 seconds
  • D. 10 seconds
Answer: A — 1 second
Guidelines recommend giving 2 rescue breaths after every 30 compressions, each delivered over about one second with just enough volume to make the chest rise. Longer or forceful breaths cause stomach inflation and delay compressions.

24. During two-rescuer CPR on an adult, how many cycles are performed before the rescuers switch roles?

  • A. 5 cycles (about 2 minutes)
  • B. 1 cycle
  • C. 10 cycles
  • D. 20 cycles
Answer: A — 5 cycles (about 2 minutes)
Rescuers should switch the compressor role every 5 cycles of 30:2, or about every 2 minutes, because fatigue quickly reduces compression depth and rate. The switch should be done quickly, ideally in under 5 seconds.

25. A casualty's chest is covered with water and the AED arrives. Before using the AED you should

  • A. Quickly wipe the chest dry before placing the pads
  • B. Place the pads on the wet chest without delay
  • C. Pour more water to improve contact
  • D. Wait for the chest to dry naturally
Answer: A — Quickly wipe the chest dry before placing the pads
Water conducts electricity and can divert the shock across the skin, reducing the energy reaching the heart and possibly causing burns. The chest should be wiped dry quickly before the pads are applied, without delaying the shock.

26. A 14-year-old is in cardiac arrest and the AED arrives. What type of AED pads will you apply?

  • A. Adult pads
  • B. Infant pads
  • C. Child pads only
  • D. No pads; AEDs must not be used under 18
Answer: A — Adult pads
Adult AED pads are used for casualties aged 8 years and older. Child pads or a dose attenuator are used for those under 8, and adult pads may be used on a younger child if child pads are not available, provided the pads do not touch.

27. When performing rescue breathing, you should

  • A. Avoid excessive ventilation
  • B. Give breaths as forcefully as possible
  • C. Give breaths at 40 per minute
  • D. Give one long breath of 5 seconds
Answer: A — Avoid excessive ventilation
Excessive ventilation increases pressure in the chest, reduces blood returning to the heart and causes stomach inflation and vomiting. Each breath should last about one second and just make the chest rise.

28. Symptoms of a stroke can be

  • A. Drooping face, arm weakness and slurred speech
  • B. High fever with a rash
  • C. Itching of the skin
  • D. Pain in the lower back only
Answer: A — Drooping face, arm weakness and slurred speech
The FAST check - Face drooping, Arm weakness, Speech difficulty, Time to call for help - identifies a stroke. Sudden one-sided weakness, confusion or loss of vision are also warning signs needing urgent medical advice.

29. The first step in operating an AED is to

  • A. Switch it on
  • B. Apply the pads
  • C. Press the shock button
  • D. Remove the battery
Answer: A — Switch it on
Once the AED arrives, switch it on first; it then gives voice prompts guiding the rescuer to attach the pads to the bare chest, stand clear for analysis and deliver a shock if advised.

30. Which type of blood vessel carries blood away from the heart?

  • A. Arteries
  • B. Veins
  • C. Venules
  • D. Lymph vessels
Answer: A — Arteries
Arteries carry blood away from the heart under pressure, which is why arterial bleeding is bright red and spurts. Veins return blood to the heart, and capillaries link the two.

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