RPSSR exit exam questions and answers — Refresher Personal Safety & Social Responsibilities
All 154 questions from the Refresher Personal Safety & Social Responsibilities (RPSSR) exit exam bank, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.
These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.
Bank last rebuilt .
154 of 154 shown
Nothing in this key matches that. Try a shorter word, or search the whole key.
Set 1 — 30 RPSSR exit exam questions with answers
1. Life jacket should be marked with the _____
- A. Maximum weight allowed
- B. Stowage space assigned
- C. Vessel’s home port
- D. Vessel’s name
Answer: D — Vessel’s name
Lifejackets carried on board are marked with the ship's name, as well as the approval and manufacturer markings required by the LSA Code. This shows they belong to and are accounted for on that vessel.
2. What is the life saving signal at day for “ you are seen-assistance will be given as soon as possible’ ?
- A. Green star rocket
- B. Red star rocket
- C. Orange smoke signal
- D. Horizontal motion a flag
Answer: C — Orange smoke signal
Under the life-saving signals in SOLAS V and the IAMSAR Manual, the day reply from a shore life-saving station or rescue unit meaning 'you are seen, assistance will be given as soon as possible' is an orange smoke signal. At night it is a white star rocket.
3. The receiver misunderstood the sender's message and
- A. This could lead to effective communication
- B. This could lead to a barrier to effective communication
- C. This could lead to wonderful communication
- D. None of these
Answer: B — This could lead to a barrier to effective communication
Communication is effective only when the receiver understands the message as the sender meant it. A misunderstanding by the receiver is therefore a barrier to effective communication and can lead to errors in shipboard operations.
4. Empathetic listening helps you to
- A. Improve mutual understanding and trust
- B. Improve mutual understanding
- C. Improve mutual understanding and feeling
- D. Improve trust and friendship
Answer: A — Improve mutual understanding and trust
Empathetic listening means paying full attention and trying to understand the speaker's feelings and point of view. It builds both mutual understanding and trust, which supports good teamwork and the human relationships covered in STCW personal safety and social responsibility training.
5. The problem of misunderstanding can be eliminated by providing ____ to the clients, while explain in the process
- A. Theories
- B. Examples
- C. Sample
- D. maths
Answer: B — Examples
Examples turn abstract instructions into something concrete and familiar. Giving examples while explaining a process helps the listener check their understanding against real situations, which reduces misunderstanding.
6. Name of two officers who liaise with each other to try out the steering gear
- A. Chief engineer and chief officer
- B. Second engineer and second officer
- C. Third engineer and third officer
- D. None of These
Answer: C — Third engineer and third officer
The keyed answer is the third officer and third engineer. On many ships these two junior officers work together to carry out the steering gear checks and tests required by SOLAS V/26 within 12 hours before departure, reporting the results to the master and chief engineer.
7. Speech rate is usually much ____ than the rate at which we think
- A. Tedious
- B. Slower
- C. Faster
- D. None of the above
Answer: B — Slower
People can think much faster than another person can speak. Because speech is slower than thought, listeners have spare mental capacity and can easily drift, so effective listening needs conscious attention.
8. In verbal communication process, the direct exchange of ____ occurs, between the sender and the receiver
- A. Mails
- B. Words
- C. Gestures
- D. none of the above
Answer: B — Words
Verbal communication is the direct exchange of spoken or written words between sender and receiver. Gestures, facial expressions and body language belong to non-verbal communication, which supports but does not replace the spoken message.
9. What is discrimination ?
- A. Making false statement about others
- B. making judgements or statements based upon making comparisons
- C. Judging people discriminately
- D. Making hateful content
Answer: B — making judgements or statements based upon making comparisons
Discrimination is making judgements or decisions about people based on comparisons of characteristics such as race, nationality, religion or gender, rather than on individual merit. It is prohibited under MLC 2006 and good shipboard practice.
10. What governs safe procedures at work
- A. The international convention on standards of training, certificate and keeping for seafarers (STCW)
- B. International safety management (ISM) code safety and health
- C. Occupational act (OSHA)
- D. The code of safe working practices
Answer: D — The code of safe working practices
The Code of Safe Working Practices for Merchant Seafarers gives guidance on safe procedures for shipboard work, including permits to work, enclosed spaces and hot work. It supports the safety management system required by the ISM Code.
11. How do you combat harassment ?
- A. By being assertive
- B. By reporting harassing behaviour to your superiors
- C. By confronting the harasser
- D. none of these
Answer: A — By being assertive
Being assertive, which means clearly and calmly telling the harasser that the behaviour is unwelcome and must stop, is the first step in combating harassment. If it continues, it should be reported through the company's complaint procedures under MLC 2006.
12. What is the key to leadership ?
- A. Taking authority
- B. Taking responsibility
- C. Effective communications
- D. none of these
Answer: C — Effective communications
Effective communication is central to leadership. A leader must share goals, give clear instructions, listen to the team and give feedback, as covered in STCW leadership and teamworking skills and bridge and engine resource management.
13. “Human elements” in ship means
- A. Human behaviour
- B. Human relationship
- C. Human interaction
- D. Human error
Answer: A — Human behaviour
The human element at sea refers to human behaviour: how people's actions, decisions, abilities and limits affect ship safety and pollution prevention. IMO treats it as a key factor, since most accidents involve human behaviour.
14. Displacement refers to the ____
- A. Cubic capacity of a vessel
- B. Deadweight carrying a vessel
- C. Gross tonnage off a vessel
- D. Number of long tons of water displaced by vessel a float
Answer: D — Number of long tons of water displaced by vessel a float
Displacement is the weight of water displaced by a floating ship, which equals the ship's total weight. Traditionally it is expressed in long tons (or tonnes) of water displaced.
15. What term indicated an inward curvature of the ship’s hull above the waterline ?
- A. Camber
- B. Tumble home
- C. Deadrise
- D. none of these
Answer: B — Tumble home
Tumblehome is the inward curvature of a ship's sides above the waterline, so the hull is narrower at deck level than at the waterline. Camber is the transverse curve of the deck, and deadrise is the rise of the bottom from keel to bilge.
16. Compared to oil tankers, chemical tankers are
- A. More complex to operate
- B. Less complex to operate
- C. As large as oil tankers
- D. Capable of carrying only one grade of chemical
Answer: A — More complex to operate
Chemical tankers often carry many different grades at once, in segregated tanks with dedicated pumps and lines. The cargoes have varied hazards such as toxicity, reactivity and corrosivity, and must meet IBC Code requirements, so they are more complex to operate than oil tankers.
17. In the concept of shiphandling, what would be the definition of shallow water
- A. Water depth of less than twice a vessel’s draft
- B. Water depth of less than 1-1/2 times a vessel’s draft
- C. Under keel clearance of twice a vessel’s draft
- D. Under keel clearance of less than 10 feet
Answer: A — Water depth of less than twice a vessel’s draft
In shiphandling, shallow water effects become significant when depth is less than about twice the ship's draft. Below this, squat increases, steering becomes sluggish, the turning circle grows and speed drops.
18. Which engineering staff is in charge of engine room maintenance ?
- A. 2 nd engineer
- B. Chief engineer
- C. 3 rd engineer
- D. Master
Answer: A — 2 nd engineer
The second engineer, as the chief engineer's deputy, is responsible for day-to-day running and planned maintenance of the engine room machinery, and for organising the engine room staff.
19. Physical stress
- A. Rarely causes emotional stress
- B. Is often a symptom of emotional stress
- C. Rarely is connected to diet
- D. Is often found in people who exercise regularly
Answer: B — Is often a symptom of emotional stress
Physical stress symptoms such as headaches, fatigue, muscle tension and poor sleep are often signs of underlying emotional or mental stress. Recognising them helps seafarers spot and manage stress early.
20. Self induced stress is mainly due to
- A. Family
- B. Personality
- C. Economy
- D. Health
Answer: B — Personality
Self-induced stress comes mainly from a person's own personality traits and habits, such as perfectionism, impatience, negative thinking or setting unrealistic goals, rather than from outside factors.
21. Balancing life goals , taking of thoughts and emotions and managing schedules are all components of ______
- A. Identifying source of stress
- B. Taking control
- C. copping with stress
- D. none of these
Answer: C — copping with stress
Coping with stress involves positive strategies such as balancing life goals, controlling thoughts and emotions, and managing time and schedules sensibly. These reduce the impact of stressors on health and performance.
22. One of the most important factor determining the success of an organization is
- A. Effective management
- B. Continuous and positive profits
- C. Performance of it’s employees
- D. Methods to combat internal personnel stress
Answer: C — Performance of it’s employees
An organisation's success depends mainly on the performance of its employees, as people turn plans, systems and resources into results. On ships, crew competence and performance decide safety and efficiency.
23. Direct blood contact through all except
- A. Needle sharing
- B. Transfusion .
- C. Sharing of beds
- D. Accident in health care settings
Answer: C — Sharing of beds
Blood-borne infections such as HIV and hepatitis B spread through direct blood contact, for example shared needles, transfusions and needlestick accidents in health care. Sharing beds does not involve blood contact.
24. When a fuel oil is being topped off during bunkering operations, the tank value should enclosed ______
- A. Slowly to prevent surge stresses
- B. To prevent gas from escaping through the pressure vacuum relief valves
- C. After the shore pumps are stopped
- D. Rapidly to prevent overflow
Answer: A — Slowly to prevent surge stresses
When topping off a bunker tank, the tank valve should be closed slowly. Closing it quickly against a pumping supply causes pressure surge, or liquid hammer, that can burst hoses or flanges and spill oil. The pumping rate is reduced and the tank sounded frequently as it nears the final ullage.
25. Ground garbage which will be discharged into sea , must be able to pass through a screen with a mesh size no longer than _____
- A. 25 millimetres
- B. 50 millimetres
- C. 75 millimetres
- D. 100 millimetres
Answer: A — 25 millimetres
MARPOL Annex V allows comminuted or ground food waste to be discharged at least 3 nautical miles from land only if it can pass through a screen with openings no larger than 25 mm.
26. During fueling operation, which of the listed precautions should be taken when topping off fuel tanks ?
- A. Reduce the pumping rate by closing the deck filling valve
- B. Close all overflow valves
- C. Place 5 gallon containers under all flange connections in the fuel line
- D. Reduce the pumping rate and sound tanks frequently
Answer: D — Reduce the pumping rate and sound tanks frequently
When topping off bunker tanks, the pumping rate should be reduced and the tanks sounded often. This prevents overflow and oil pollution, in line with MARPOL Annex I and the ship's bunkering procedures under the ISM Code.
27. Answering signals made by life-saving stations when signals seen from a ship by day are
- A. Orange smoke signal
- B. Parachute rocket
- C. Hand flare
- D. Second officer
Answer: A — Orange smoke signal
In reply to distress signals seen by day, life-saving stations and maritime rescue units use an orange smoke signal, or a combined light and sound signal, meaning 'you are seen, assistance will be given as soon as possible'. At night the reply is a white star rocket.
28. The Ism code requires work procedures which ensure ________ performance
- A. Superior
- B. Profitable
- C. Safe
- D. Excellent
Answer: C — Safe
ISM Code section 1.2 requires the safety management system to provide safe practices in ship operation and a safe working environment. Section 7 requires procedures and instructions for key shipboard operations to ensure safe performance.
29. The poop deck is located
- A. Adjacent to the steering flat
- B. Fore part of the ship
- C. Above the bridge
- D. Above the engine room
Answer: A — Adjacent to the steering flat
The poop deck is the raised deck at the stern of the ship, over the aftermost part of the hull where the steering gear flat is usually found. It is not in the fore part, above the bridge or above the engine room.
30. The international distress, safety and calling frequency is channel_______
- A. 16
- B. 18
- C. 22
- D. 13
Answer: A — 16
VHF channel 16 (156.8 MHz) is the international distress, safety and calling frequency for radiotelephony. Under the Radio Regulations and SOLAS IV, ships keep a listening watch on it.
Set 2 — 30 RPSSR exit exam questions with answers
1. If more than one liferaft is manned after the vessel has sunk, what action will aid in your recue ?
- A. Each raft should go in a different direction in search of land
- B. The possibility of a search aircraft finding you is increased by spreading out
- C. Tie each of the rafts together and try to stay in a single group
- D. Reduce the number of liferaft
Answer: C — Tie each of the rafts together and try to stay in a single group
When several liferafts are manned, tying them together and staying as one group makes a much larger target for search aircraft and ships. It also lets survivors share equipment and makes it easier for rescuers to account for everyone.
2. If it was required to abandon ship, you should
- A. Push all passengers to slip into the water or life raft
- B. . Assist the passengers to slip into the water or life raft
- C. Get all passengers off before inflating the life raft
- D. Jump into the water first to encourage
Answer: B — . Assist the passengers to slip into the water or life raft
During abandonment, crew should calmly assist passengers into the liferaft or water, helping them to board safely and in order. Pushing people, jumping first or delaying inflation of the raft all increase the risk of injury and drowning.
3. When should the control of flooding of your vessel be addressed ?
- A. Only if a threat exists
- B. Following control of fire
- C. Following restoration of vital services
- D. First
Answer: B — Following control of fire
In damage control priorities, fire is normally tackled first because it spreads fastest and threatens everything else. Flooding control comes next, followed by restoration of vital services. The bank keys flooding control as following control of fire.
4. A motor lifeboat shall carry sufficient fuel to operate continuously for a period of which duration ?
- A. 12 hours
- B. 18 hours
- C. 24 hours
- D. 23 hours
Answer: C — 24 hours
LSA Code 4.4.6.4 requires a motor lifeboat to carry enough fuel to run fully loaded at 6 knots for at least 24 hours. The propulsion system must also be able to tow a fully loaded 25-person liferaft at 2 knots.
5. You are evacuating crew members from a survival craft that has been adrift in the north Atlantic for several days. What could occur if a person suffering from hypothermia is vertically lifted in a recue sling to the helicopter ?
- A. A decrease in the symptoms of hypothermia
- B. Temporary blindness from the altitude change
- C. Severe shock or cardiac arrest
- D. Frostbite on exposed areas
Answer: C — Severe shock or cardiac arrest
A hypothermic casualty lifted vertically can suffer a sudden fall in blood pressure as blood pools in the legs, called post-rescue collapse, leading to severe shock or cardiac arrest. Casualties should be lifted horizontally, for example with a double strop or stretcher.
6. Life buoys are subjected to which of the following tests ?
- A. Crop test
- B. Fire test
- C. Floatation test
- D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
Lifebuoys are prototype-tested under the LSA Code and MSC.81(70) by being dropped from the stowage height or 30 m, briefly engulfed in fire, and floated for 24 hours while supporting iron weights. Every listed test applies.
7. The general emergency alarm signal on board is sounded on the ship's whistle or siren and the alarm bells as:
- A. Seven or more short blasts followed by one long blast
- B. Three long blasts repeated
- C. Continuous ringing of the bells for at least one minute
- D. One long blast followed by seven short blasts
Answer: A — Seven or more short blasts followed by one long blast
SOLAS Chapter III and the LSA Code (7.2.1.1) specify the general emergency alarm as seven or more short blasts followed by one long blast on the whistle or siren, supplemented by the general alarm bells, calling all persons to their muster stations.
8. On hearing the general emergency alarm, a crew member should:
- A. Go to the muster station shown in the muster list, wearing warm clothing and carrying or wearing the lifejacket
- B. Wait in the cabin for instructions over the public address system
- C. Go to the bridge to ask the officer of the watch what has happened
- D. Go directly to the lifeboat and lower it
Answer: A — Go to the muster station shown in the muster list, wearing warm clothing and carrying or wearing the lifejacket
Each crew member must know the muster station and duties assigned in the muster list and proceed there promptly, suitably dressed with the lifejacket, so that the Master can account for all persons and organise the response.
9. Under SOLAS, where must the muster list be exhibited on board?
- A. Only in the Master's office
- B. Only inside each lifeboat
- C. Only at the gangway for visiting officials
- D. In conspicuous places throughout the ship, including the navigation bridge, engine room and crew accommodation
Answer: D — In conspicuous places throughout the ship, including the navigation bridge, engine room and crew accommodation
SOLAS regulation III/37 requires the muster list to be prepared before the ship proceeds to sea and exhibited in conspicuous places throughout the ship, including the navigation bridge, the engine room and crew accommodation spaces.
10. Under SOLAS, if more than 25% of the crew have not taken part in abandon ship and fire drills on board that ship in the previous month, the drills must be held:
- A. Within one week of leaving port
- B. Within 24 hours of the ship leaving port
- C. Within 48 hours of the crew joining
- D. At the next port of call
Answer: B — Within 24 hours of the ship leaving port
SOLAS regulation III/19.3.2 requires every crew member to take part in at least one abandon ship drill and one fire drill every month, and these drills to be held within 24 hours of leaving port if more than 25% of the crew have not participated on that ship in the previous month.
11. A crew member discovers a small fire in a store room. What is the first action to take?
- A. Close the store room and continue with the work
- B. Raise the alarm and inform the bridge
- C. Open all the doors to let the smoke out
- D. Look for the owner of the store room
Answer: B — Raise the alarm and inform the bridge
On discovering any potential emergency the first action is to raise the alarm, for example by shouting and operating the nearest manual call point, and inform the bridge; only then attempt to fight the fire with suitable equipment if it is safe to do so.
12. Which shipboard contingency plan is required by MARPOL Annex I for oil tankers of 150 GT and above and other ships of 400 GT and above?
- A. Garbage Management Plan
- B. Ballast Water Management Plan
- C. Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan (SOPEP)
- D. Ship Security Plan
Answer: C — Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan (SOPEP)
MARPOL Annex I regulation 37 requires every oil tanker of 150 GT and above and every other ship of 400 GT and above to carry an approved Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan setting out reporting procedures and actions to control discharge of oil.
13. An Emergency Escape Breathing Device (EEBD) is intended to be used:
- A. For entering an enclosed space to rescue a casualty
- B. Only for escaping from a compartment with a hazardous atmosphere
- C. For routine tank cleaning
- D. For fighting fires in the engine room
Answer: B — Only for escaping from a compartment with a hazardous atmosphere
Under the FSS Code an EEBD supplies air or oxygen for at least 10 minutes and is used solely for escape from a compartment with a hazardous atmosphere; it must not be used for fire-fighting, entering oxygen-deficient voids or tanks, or rescue work.
14. You see a person fall overboard. What should you do immediately?
- A. Lower the rescue boat by yourself
- B. Run to the bridge to report and then come back to look
- C. Shout 'man overboard', throw a lifebuoy towards the person and keep pointing at them while the bridge is informed
- D. Jump into the water to rescue the person
Answer: C — Shout 'man overboard', throw a lifebuoy towards the person and keep pointing at them while the bridge is informed
The person who sees a man overboard should raise the alarm by shouting 'man overboard', throw a lifebuoy (preferably with light and smoke) close to the person, ensure the bridge is informed and keep the person in sight, pointing continuously so the ship can manoeuvre back.
15. Under MARPOL Annex V, which ships must carry a Garbage Record Book?
- A. Ships of 400 GT and above and ships certified to carry 15 or more persons engaged in voyages to ports or offshore terminals under the jurisdiction of another Party
- B. Every ship of 100 GT and above
- C. Only ships engaged in international voyages of more than 3 days
- D. Only passenger ships
Answer: A — Ships of 400 GT and above and ships certified to carry 15 or more persons engaged in voyages to ports or offshore terminals under the jurisdiction of another Party
MARPOL Annex V regulation 10.3 requires every ship of 400 GT and above, and every ship certified to carry 15 or more persons engaged on voyages to ports or offshore terminals of another Party, to keep a Garbage Record Book recording each discharge or incineration.
16. Under MARPOL Annex V, garbage disposal placards notifying crew and passengers of the discharge requirements must be displayed on every ship of:
- A. 100 GT and above
- B. 24 metres or more in length
- C. 12 metres or more in length overall
- D. 400 GT and above
Answer: C — 12 metres or more in length overall
MARPOL Annex V regulation 10.1 requires every ship of 12 metres or more in length overall, and fixed or floating platforms, to display placards notifying crew and passengers of the garbage discharge requirements, in the working language of the crew and in English, French or Spanish where applicable.
17. Under MARPOL Annex V, a Garbage Management Plan is required on every ship of:
- A. 400 GT and above only
- B. 10,000 GT and above
- C. 100 GT and above, and every ship certified to carry 15 or more persons
- D. 12 metres or more in length
Answer: C — 100 GT and above, and every ship certified to carry 15 or more persons
MARPOL Annex V regulation 10.2 requires every ship of 100 GT and above, every ship certified to carry 15 or more persons and fixed or floating platforms to carry a Garbage Management Plan with written procedures for collecting, storing, processing and disposing of garbage.
18. Under MARPOL Annex V, discharge of plastics, including synthetic ropes and plastic garbage bags, into the sea is:
- A. Prohibited in all sea areas
- B. Allowed only if comminuted
- C. Allowed beyond 12 nautical miles from the nearest land
- D. Allowed outside special areas when the ship is en route
Answer: A — Prohibited in all sea areas
MARPOL Annex V regulation 3 prohibits the discharge into the sea of all plastics, including synthetic ropes, fishing nets, plastic garbage bags and incinerator ashes from plastic products, everywhere; they must be retained on board and landed to reception facilities.
19. Outside special areas, food waste that has NOT been comminuted or ground may be discharged into the sea only when the ship is en route and as far as practicable from the nearest land, but not less than:
- A. 1 nautical mile
- B. 12 nautical miles
- C. 25 nautical miles
- D. 3 nautical miles
Answer: B — 12 nautical miles
MARPOL Annex V regulation 4 permits discharge of food waste outside special areas not less than 12 nautical miles from the nearest land, or not less than 3 nautical miles if it has been comminuted or ground, with the ship en route in both cases.
20. Outside special areas, oily bilge water from machinery spaces may be discharged into the sea only if, among other conditions, the oil content of the effluent without dilution does not exceed:
- A. 5 ppm
- B. 50 ppm
- C. 100 ppm
- D. 15 ppm
Answer: D — 15 ppm
MARPOL Annex I regulation 15 allows discharge from machinery spaces only when the ship is en route, the mixture is processed through approved oil filtering equipment, and the oil content without dilution does not exceed 15 parts per million.
21. Before bunkering commences, why must the deck scuppers be plugged?
- A. To increase the stability of the ship
- B. To contain any oil spilled on deck and prevent it from going overboard
- C. To prevent the bunker hose from moving
- D. To keep rainwater off the deck
Answer: B — To contain any oil spilled on deck and prevent it from going overboard
Plugging scuppers and having save-all trays and spill clean-up material ready ensures that any oil from an overflow or hose leak is contained on deck and cleaned up instead of polluting the sea, as required by bunkering checklists and the SOPEP.
22. Since 1 January 2020, outside Emission Control Areas, the sulphur content of fuel oil used on board ships must not exceed:
- A. 1.50% m/m
- B. 0.10% m/m
- C. 0.50% m/m
- D. 3.50% m/m
Answer: C — 0.50% m/m
MARPOL Annex VI regulation 14 sets the global sulphur limit for fuel oil used on board at 0.50% m/m from 1 January 2020, while inside SOx Emission Control Areas the limit is 0.10% m/m.
23. What is the main purpose of a permit-to-work system on board?
- A. To allow crew to work without supervision
- B. To record the overtime hours of the crew
- C. To replace the need for a risk assessment
- D. To ensure that hazardous work is properly planned, the hazards are controlled and the work is authorised by a responsible officer before it starts
Answer: D — To ensure that hazardous work is properly planned, the hazards are controlled and the work is authorised by a responsible officer before it starts
The Code of Safe Working Practices requires a permit to work for hazardous tasks such as hot work, enclosed space entry, working aloft or on electrical equipment, so that precautions are checked and the work is formally authorised, controlled and closed out.
24. When carrying out a risk assessment for a shipboard job, what is the first step?
- A. Identify the hazards involved in the task
- B. Decide on the PPE to be worn
- C. Start the job and observe what happens
- D. Sign the permit to work
Answer: A — Identify the hazards involved in the task
Risk assessment begins with identifying the hazards of the task, then evaluating who may be harmed and how likely and severe the harm is, and finally deciding and implementing control measures, which are reviewed when conditions change.
25. In the hierarchy of risk control measures, personal protective equipment (PPE) should be regarded as:
- A. The first and most effective control
- B. Optional if the job is short
- C. The last line of defence, used when the hazard cannot be eliminated or adequately controlled by other means
- D. A replacement for safe working procedures
Answer: C — The last line of defence, used when the hazard cannot be eliminated or adequately controlled by other means
Control measures should first aim to eliminate or substitute the hazard, then use engineering and administrative controls; PPE protects only the wearer and only if worn correctly, so it is the last line of defence.
26. Before carrying out maintenance on electrical or rotating machinery, the equipment should be:
- A. Switched off at the local switch only
- B. Isolated from its power source, locked off and tagged so that it cannot be started inadvertently
- C. Left running so that faults can be observed
- D. Covered with a tarpaulin
Answer: B — Isolated from its power source, locked off and tagged so that it cannot be started inadvertently
Isolation with lock-out and tag-out ensures the energy source is disconnected and cannot be restored by another person while work is in progress, preventing electrocution or injury from unexpected start-up.
27. A seafarer working aloft or outboard must:
- A. Work alone so as not to disturb others
- B. Wear a lifejacket only when in port
- C. Wear a safety harness with the lifeline secured to a strong point, and the work must be authorised
- D. Use a ladder without anyone else knowing
Answer: C — Wear a safety harness with the lifeline secured to a strong point, and the work must be authorised
The Code of Safe Working Practices treats working aloft and outboard as hazardous work requiring authorisation, a safety harness attached to a secure point, suitable staging and, when working outboard, a lifejacket and lifebuoy at hand.
28. Under the IMO Code on noise levels on board ships, hearing protection is required for persons entering spaces where the noise level is greater than:
- A. 60 dB(A)
- B. 85 dB(A)
- C. 45 dB(A)
- D. 110 dB(A)
Answer: B — 85 dB(A)
The IMO Code on Noise Levels on Board Ships (MSC.337(91)) requires ear protection to be worn in spaces with noise levels above 85 dB(A), and such spaces are marked with warning signs at their entrances.
29. Which of the following is a required precaution before starting hot work such as welding on deck?
- A. Carry out the work quickly before anyone notices
- B. Wet the welding cable to cool it
- C. Obtain a hot work permit, ensure the area is gas free and cleared of combustibles, and post a fire watch with extinguishers ready
- D. Open fuel tank vents to release vapour
Answer: C — Obtain a hot work permit, ensure the area is gas free and cleared of combustibles, and post a fire watch with extinguishers ready
Hot work is a major fire risk; it requires a hot work permit, gas testing, removal or protection of combustible material on both sides of the bulkhead, a fire watch and fire-fighting equipment ready, continued after the work ends.
30. The freeboard of a ship is the vertical distance measured amidships from the waterline to the:
- A. Bridge deck
- B. Keel
- C. Upper edge of the deck line
- D. Top of the funnel
Answer: C — Upper edge of the deck line
Freeboard is measured at the middle of the ship from the waterline to the upper edge of the deck line; the load line marks set the minimum permitted freeboard for each season and zone to ensure the ship has adequate reserve buoyancy.
Set 3 — 30 RPSSR exit exam questions with answers
1. According to IMO guidance (Resolution A.1050(27)), an enclosed space is one that has which characteristics?
- A. Limited openings for entry and exit, inadequate ventilation and is not designed for continuous worker occupancy
- B. Only cargo tanks of tankers
- C. Any space with a locked door
- D. Any space below the main deck
Answer: A — Limited openings for entry and exit, inadequate ventilation and is not designed for continuous worker occupancy
Resolution A.1050(27) defines an enclosed space as one with limited openings for entry and exit, inadequate ventilation and not designed for continuous worker occupancy, such as tanks, void spaces, cofferdams, chain lockers, duct keels and cargo holds.
2. Before entry into an enclosed space without breathing apparatus, the oxygen content of the atmosphere should be a steady:
- A. 25% by volume
- B. 18% by volume
- C. 16% by volume
- D. 21% by volume
Answer: D — 21% by volume
IMO Resolution A.1050(27) recommends that, before entry, the atmosphere should show a steady 21% oxygen by volume and no hazardous concentrations of flammable or toxic gases, confirmed by tests at different levels with calibrated instruments.
3. Under SOLAS, how often must enclosed space entry and rescue drills be carried out on board?
- A. Only when a new crew member joins
- B. At least once every week
- C. At least once every year
- D. At least once every two months
Answer: D — At least once every two months
SOLAS regulation III/19.3.6 requires enclosed space entry and rescue drills to be planned and conducted at intervals of not more than two months, so that crew practise entry procedures, use of equipment and rescue.
4. When testing the atmosphere of an enclosed space before entry, it is generally recommended to test for:
- A. Only flammable gases
- B. Only oxygen
- C. Toxic gases first, then oxygen
- D. Oxygen first, then flammable gases, then toxic gases
Answer: D — Oxygen first, then flammable gases, then toxic gases
Oxygen is measured first because oxygen deficiency is itself lethal and some combustible-gas sensors need adequate oxygen to read correctly; flammable and then toxic gases such as H2S and CO are measured next.
5. Why should the atmosphere of an enclosed space be tested at several levels and locations?
- A. Because the gas detector needs warming up
- B. To save time during testing
- C. Gases of different densities can stratify and pockets of gas may remain in corners, bottoms or behind structures
- D. To check the temperature at each level
Answer: C — Gases of different densities can stratify and pockets of gas may remain in corners, bottoms or behind structures
Heavier gases such as H2S collect low down and lighter gases high up, while poorly ventilated pockets can persist; testing only near the entrance can therefore give a false impression that the whole space is safe.
6. The attendant stationed at the entrance of an enclosed space during entry should:
- A. Leave the entrance to fetch tools when needed
- B. Remain at the entrance, keep in contact with those inside and raise the alarm in an emergency without entering alone
- C. Close the hatch to keep out rain
- D. Enter the space immediately if a person collapses
Answer: B — Remain at the entrance, keep in contact with those inside and raise the alarm in an emergency without entering alone
The attendant must stay at the entrance, maintain communication with the entrants and, if anything goes wrong, raise the alarm and summon the rescue team; entering without breathing apparatus has caused many multiple fatalities among would-be rescuers.
7. During an enclosed space entry, ventilation of the space should be:
- A. Continued throughout the period that persons are inside
- B. Carried out only after the work is complete
- C. Done with pure oxygen to speed up the process
- D. Stopped once the first test shows 21% oxygen
Answer: A — Continued throughout the period that persons are inside
Atmospheres can change through disturbance of residues, sludge or scale, or through the work itself, so ventilation with fresh air must be maintained throughout the entry; oxygen must never be used for ventilation because it greatly increases the fire risk.
8. SOLAS regulation XI-1/7 requires ships to carry appropriate portable atmosphere-testing instruments capable of measuring at least:
- A. Only carbon dioxide and nitrogen
- B. Oxygen, flammable gases or vapours, hydrogen sulphide and carbon monoxide
- C. Only oxygen
- D. Only flammable gases
Answer: B — Oxygen, flammable gases or vapours, hydrogen sulphide and carbon monoxide
SOLAS regulation XI-1/7, in force since 1 July 2016, requires ships to carry instruments that, as a minimum, measure the concentration of oxygen, flammable gases or vapours, hydrogen sulphide and carbon monoxide before persons enter enclosed spaces.
9. The footnote to the competence 'Observe safe working practices' in STCW Table A-VI/1-4 refers to which ILO publication on international accident prevention measures?
- A. ILO Guidelines on Seafarers' Identity Documents
- B. ILO Guide to Port State Control
- C. ILO Code of practice on accident prevention on board ship at sea and in port
- D. ILO Convention on Forced Labour
Answer: C — ILO Code of practice on accident prevention on board ship at sea and in port
The PSSR syllabus item on international measures concerning accident prevention and occupational health refers to the ILO Code of practice 'Accident prevention on board ship at sea and in port', which gives practical guidance on safe working on board.
10. Which Regulation of MLC 2006 deals with health and safety protection and accident prevention on board?
- A. Regulation 3.1
- B. Regulation 1.4
- C. Regulation 4.3
- D. Regulation 2.3
Answer: C — Regulation 4.3
Regulation 4.3 of MLC 2006 requires flag States to ensure that seafarers' work environment on board promotes occupational safety and health, with policies and programmes for accident prevention, risk evaluation, training and reporting.
11. Under MLC 2006 Standard A4.3, occupational accidents, injuries and diseases on board are to be:
- A. Adequately reported, investigated and recorded, with statistics published
- B. Kept confidential and not recorded
- C. Reported only if a seafarer dies
- D. Reported only to the P&I club
Answer: A — Adequately reported, investigated and recorded, with statistics published
Standard A4.3 requires occupational accidents, injuries and diseases to be reported and investigated, with comprehensive statistics kept, analysed and published, so that their causes can be identified and preventive measures introduced.
12. Why are near-miss reports encouraged on board?
- A. They are used to punish the persons involved
- B. They are needed only for insurance claims
- C. They replace the need for safety meetings
- D. They help identify hazards and correct unsafe conditions before an accident occurs
Answer: D — They help identify hazards and correct unsafe conditions before an accident occurs
A near miss is an event that could have caused injury or damage but did not; reporting and analysing near misses in a no-blame culture, as encouraged by the ISM Code, allows corrective action to be taken before a real accident happens.
13. Under MLC 2006, seafarers under the age of 18 shall not be employed or engaged in work which:
- A. Involves cleaning their own cabin
- B. Takes place on deck
- C. Is carried out in daylight
- D. Is likely to jeopardise their health or safety
Answer: D — Is likely to jeopardise their health or safety
Standard A1.1.4 prohibits employment of seafarers under 18 where the work is likely to jeopardise their health or safety, and the competent authority must determine the types of such hazardous work after consultation with shipowners' and seafarers' organisations.
14. What important information does a Safety Data Sheet (SDS) for a chemical used on board provide?
- A. The voyage on which it was delivered
- B. Its hazards, safe handling and storage, required PPE, first-aid and spill measures
- C. Its purchase price and supplier discount
- D. Only the name of the manufacturer
Answer: B — Its hazards, safe handling and storage, required PPE, first-aid and spill measures
An SDS (formerly MSDS) gives the hazards of a substance and the precautions for its safe handling, storage, protective equipment, fire-fighting, first aid and spill response; it should be available and read before using chemicals such as paints, solvents and cleaners.
15. Which measure best helps to prevent heat stress when working in a hot engine room?
- A. Drinking water frequently, taking regular rest breaks in a cooler area and wearing light, suitable clothing
- B. Drinking alcohol after the watch to relax
- C. Taking salt tablets instead of water
- D. Working continuously to finish the job faster
Answer: A — Drinking water frequently, taking regular rest breaks in a cooler area and wearing light, suitable clothing
Heat stress is prevented by limiting exposure time, ensuring ventilation, frequent intake of water, regular rest in cooler places and suitable clothing; supervisors should watch for symptoms such as dizziness, cramps, nausea and confusion.
16. The role of the elected safety representative on board is to:
- A. Decide disciplinary action against crew
- B. Represent the crew on safety matters, take part in the safety committee, inspections and investigations, and raise crew concerns
- C. Approve the company's budget
- D. Replace the Master in emergencies
Answer: B — Represent the crew on safety matters, take part in the safety committee, inspections and investigations, and raise crew concerns
Under MLC 2006 Standard A4.3 and the ILO accident prevention code, seafarers' safety representatives participate in the ship's safety committee, inspections and accident investigations and bring the crew's safety concerns to the attention of management.
17. In closed-loop communication on board, the receiver of an order should:
- A. Repeat back the message so the sender can confirm it was correctly understood
- B. Ask someone else what the order meant
- C. Carry out the order without acknowledgement
- D. Remain silent to show agreement
Answer: A — Repeat back the message so the sender can confirm it was correctly understood
Closed-loop communication requires the receiver to read back the instruction and the sender to confirm or correct it; this simple check removes many misunderstandings, especially in noisy conditions or with a multinational crew.
18. The IMO Standard Marine Communication Phrases (SMCP), used to reduce misunderstanding in ship-to-ship, ship-to-shore and on-board communication, were adopted by IMO Resolution:
- A. MSC.560(108)
- B. A.1050(27)
- C. A.741(18)
- D. A.918(22)
Answer: D — A.918(22)
The SMCP were adopted by IMO Resolution A.918(22) in 2001 to provide standard English phrases for safety-related communication; STCW requires their use by officers in charge of a navigational watch.
19. Under SOLAS regulation V/14, the working language for the crew on board a ship must be:
- A. The language of the Master's nationality
- B. Always English
- C. Established by the company and recorded in the ship's log-book
- D. Chosen individually by each department
Answer: C — Established by the company and recorded in the ship's log-book
SOLAS regulation V/14.3 requires the company or the Master to determine an appropriate working language, record it in the log-book, and ensure each seafarer can understand and give orders and instructions and report back in that language.
20. Under STCW, Administrations must set a limit on blood alcohol content for persons performing watchkeeping or safety duties of not greater than:
- A. 0.10% BAC
- B. 0.05% BAC or 0.25 mg/l alcohol in the breath
- C. 0.08% BAC or 0.40 mg/l in the breath
- D. 0.02% BAC
Answer: B — 0.05% BAC or 0.25 mg/l alcohol in the breath
STCW Section A-VIII/1 paragraph 10 requires Administrations to establish a limit of not greater than 0.05% blood alcohol content or 0.25 mg/l alcohol in the breath, or a quantity of alcohol leading to such concentration, for masters, officers and other seafarers on watchkeeping or safety duties.
21. A seafarer found in possession of illegal drugs on board in a foreign port may cause:
- A. No consequence if the drugs are for personal use
- B. Prosecution of the seafarer and possible detention of the ship, fines on the company and damage to its reputation
- C. Only a verbal warning from the Master
- D. A reduction in the port dues
Answer: B — Prosecution of the seafarer and possible detention of the ship, fines on the company and damage to its reputation
Drug possession is a serious criminal offence in most countries; besides arrest and imprisonment of the individual, the ship can be detained and the owner heavily fined, which is why company drug and alcohol policies prohibit drugs and provide for random testing.
22. Which of the following is an obligation of every seafarer on board?
- A. To refuse all overtime under any circumstances
- B. To decide personally whether to take part in drills
- C. To follow safe working procedures and lawful orders and report hazards, defects or unsafe acts
- D. To keep safety concerns to himself to avoid trouble
Answer: C — To follow safe working procedures and lawful orders and report hazards, defects or unsafe acts
Along with the rights given by MLC 2006, seafarers have obligations under the ISM Code and the company SMS to comply with procedures, take part in drills, obey lawful orders and report hazards and non-conformities so that safety is maintained.
23. Under STCW and MLC 2006, the minimum hours of rest for a seafarer shall be not less than:
- A. 6 hours in any 24-hour period and 42 hours in any 7-day period
- B. 10 hours in any 24-hour period and 77 hours in any 7-day period
- C. 8 hours in any 24-hour period and 56 hours in any 7-day period
- D. 12 hours in any 24-hour period and 84 hours in any 7-day period
Answer: B — 10 hours in any 24-hour period and 77 hours in any 7-day period
STCW Section A-VIII/1 and MLC Standard A2.3 require a minimum of 10 hours of rest in any 24-hour period and 77 hours in any 7-day period, recorded so that compliance can be monitored.
24. Under STCW, the minimum 10 hours of rest in any 24-hour period may be divided into no more than two periods, one of which must be at least:
- A. 5 hours long, with no more than 18 hours between rest periods
- B. 4 hours long, with no more than 16 hours between rest periods
- C. 6 hours long, with no more than 14 hours between consecutive rest periods
- D. 8 hours long, with no more than 12 hours between rest periods
Answer: C — 6 hours long, with no more than 14 hours between consecutive rest periods
STCW Section A-VIII/1 allows the hours of rest to be split into no more than two periods, one of at least 6 hours, and the interval between consecutive periods of rest must not exceed 14 hours.
25. Which of the following is a healthy way for a seafarer to cope with stress on board?
- A. Skipping meals to save time for work
- B. Increasing alcohol consumption after duty
- C. Regular physical exercise, adequate sleep, a balanced diet and talking problems over with trusted shipmates or family
- D. Staying alone in the cabin during all free time
Answer: C — Regular physical exercise, adequate sleep, a balanced diet and talking problems over with trusted shipmates or family
Effective stress management includes exercise, sufficient rest, good nutrition, relaxation, planning workload and sharing problems with others; alcohol, isolation and poor diet worsen stress and fatigue and increase the risk of accidents.
26. The new STCW competence 'Contribute to the prevention of and response to violence and harassment, including sexual harassment, bullying and sexual assault' has been added to which STCW Code table?
- A. Table A-II/4 (Ratings forming part of a navigational watch)
- B. Table A-VI/1-4 (Personal safety and social responsibilities)
- C. Table A-VI/1-1 (Personal survival techniques)
- D. Table A-VI/6-1 (Security awareness)
Answer: B — Table A-VI/1-4 (Personal safety and social responsibilities)
Resolution MSC.560(108) replaced Table A-VI/1-4, the PSSR competence table under Section A-VI/1, adding the new competence on prevention of and response to violence and harassment. It therefore forms part of basic training required for all seafarers.
27. The STCW Code amendments introducing training on prevention of and response to violence and harassment were adopted by which IMO resolution?
- A. MSC.416(97)
- B. MEPC.328(76)
- C. A.1047(27)
- D. MSC.560(108)
Answer: D — MSC.560(108)
The Maritime Safety Committee at its 108th session adopted resolution MSC.560(108) on 23 May 2024, amending Part A of the STCW Code to add the violence and harassment competence to Table A-VI/1-4.
28. On what date did the STCW Code amendments on prevention of and response to violence and harassment, including sexual harassment, bullying and sexual assault, enter into force?
- A. 15 December 2025
- B. 1 July 2025
- C. 1 January 2027
- D. 1 January 2026
Answer: D — 1 January 2026
Resolution MSC.560(108) provided for deemed acceptance on 1 July 2025 and entry into force on 1 January 2026. DGS Circular 53 of 2025 likewise brings the directive into force from 01.01.2026.
29. For the purpose of the new STCW competence, the term 'violence and harassment' is to be understood as defined in which instrument?
- A. ISPS Code, Part B
- B. MLC 2006, Regulation 4.3
- C. ILO Violence and Harassment Convention, 2019 (No. 190)
- D. ISM Code, Part A
Answer: C — ILO Violence and Harassment Convention, 2019 (No. 190)
The footnote to the amended Table A-VI/1-4 states that violence and harassment are as defined in the ILO Violence and Harassment Convention, 2019 (No. 190), the first international treaty dealing specifically with violence and harassment in the world of work.
30. In the context of violence and harassment training, the 'continuum of harm' means that:
- A. Unacceptable behaviour ranges from less obvious acts such as offensive jokes and comments up to severe acts such as sexual assault, and lower-level behaviour left unchecked can escalate
- B. Harm to the victim continues only until the perpetrator signs off
- C. Harm is only recognised once it has continued for more than one voyage
- D. Only physical assault is regarded as harmful
Answer: A — Unacceptable behaviour ranges from less obvious acts such as offensive jokes and comments up to severe acts such as sexual assault, and lower-level behaviour left unchecked can escalate
The continuum of harm describes a spectrum of behaviours from apparently minor acts such as derogatory remarks, jokes or unwanted attention to serious acts such as physical or sexual assault. Tolerating the lower end creates conditions in which more serious harm can occur.
Set 4 — 30 RPSSR exit exam questions with answers
1. Repeated, unreasonable behaviour directed towards a person, such as persistent ridicule, intimidation, deliberate exclusion or unfair criticism intended to undermine them, is best described as:
- A. Constructive criticism
- B. Performance appraisal
- C. Conflict resolution
- D. Bullying
Answer: D — Bullying
Bullying is typically repeated, unreasonable behaviour directed at a person or group that intimidates, humiliates, isolates or undermines them. It differs from legitimate supervision or feedback, which is fair, factual and aimed at improving work.
2. Which of the following is an example of sexual harassment on board?
- A. An Officer correcting an error in a rest hour record
- B. A Chief Officer instructing a rating to wear a safety helmet on deck
- C. A Master refusing shore leave because of port security restrictions
- D. Unwelcome comments about a crew member's body, sexual jokes or sending sexually explicit images to a colleague
Answer: D — Unwelcome comments about a crew member's body, sexual jokes or sending sexually explicit images to a colleague
Sexual harassment is unwelcome conduct of a sexual nature, verbal, non-verbal or physical, that offends, humiliates or intimidates. Remarks about a person's body, sexual jokes and sending explicit images are typical examples; lawful safety instructions are not harassment.
3. Any sexual act or sexual touching carried out on a person without their consent, including by force, threat or when the person is unable to consent, is termed:
- A. Discrimination
- B. Sexual assault
- C. Cyber-bullying
- D. Verbal harassment
Answer: B — Sexual assault
Sexual assault is the most serious end of the continuum of harm and involves sexual contact or acts without the consent of the person. It is a criminal offence and must be reported, with the victim given medical care and support.
4. Posting humiliating photographs of a shipmate on social media or sending threatening messages through a messaging group is an example of:
- A. Effective informal communication
- B. Cyber-harassment or cyber-bullying
- C. A breach of the ship security plan only
- D. Acceptable banter
Answer: B — Cyber-harassment or cyber-bullying
The PSSR 2026 syllabus requires trainees to recognise cyber-harassment and cyber-bullying, which use phones, internet, social media or messaging apps to harass, humiliate or threaten a person. Onboard connectivity means such conduct can follow the victim everywhere on the ship.
5. In violence and harassment training, a 'bystander' is:
- A. A port State control officer
- B. The person who commits the harmful act
- C. A person who witnesses or becomes aware of the violence or harassment but is not the target or the perpetrator
- D. Only the company's Designated Person Ashore
Answer: C — A person who witnesses or becomes aware of the violence or harassment but is not the target or the perpetrator
The syllabus distinguishes victims, perpetrators, bystanders and stakeholders. A bystander is someone who sees, hears or learns of the harmful behaviour; bystanders can play an important role by safely intervening, supporting the victim and reporting.
6. Which of the following is listed in the amended STCW Table A-VI/1-4 as a factor that may contribute to violence and harassment on board?
- A. Use of Standard Marine Communication Phrases
- B. Abuse of power relations, discrimination, stress, isolation, fatigue, drugs or alcohol
- C. Rotation of watchkeeping duties
- D. Regular safety committee meetings
Answer: B — Abuse of power relations, discrimination, stress, isolation, fatigue, drugs or alcohol
The new competence requires seafarers to understand that, among others, abuse of power relations, discrimination, stress, isolation, fatigue, drugs or alcohol may contribute to violence and harassment, including sexual harassment, bullying and sexual assault.
7. Why is the strict rank hierarchy on board ships considered a risk factor for harassment?
- A. It removes the need for any onboard complaint procedure
- B. It means all decisions must be referred ashore
- C. It prevents the ship from complying with STCW manning requirements
- D. Senior personnel control work, appraisals and future employment, so juniors may fear reporting and power can be abused
Answer: D — Senior personnel control work, appraisals and future employment, so juniors may fear reporting and power can be abused
Abuse of power relations is a recognised cause of harassment. Where a superior controls duties, reports and contract renewal, a junior seafarer, cadet or trainee may feel unable to object or report, which allows the behaviour to continue.
8. Which shipboard condition most increases the risk of violence and harassment going unchallenged?
- A. Frequent port calls with shore leave
- B. Regular familiarisation training
- C. A small, isolated crew living and working together for long periods, far from family and outside support
- D. Having an active safety committee
Answer: C — A small, isolated crew living and working together for long periods, far from family and outside support
Isolation, confinement, long contracts and limited access to outside help are identified as conditions that raise the risk of violence and harassment on board and make it harder for victims to escape or report the behaviour.
9. Which of the following is a likely consequence of harassment and bullying for ship safety?
- A. Reduced concentration, stress and fatigue in victims, poor communication and reluctance to speak up, increasing the risk of accidents
- B. Fewer near-miss reports because there are fewer hazards
- C. Reduced need for drills
- D. Improved watchkeeping alertness
Answer: A — Reduced concentration, stress and fatigue in victims, poor communication and reluctance to speak up, increasing the risk of accidents
The syllabus requires knowledge of the effects of violence and harassment on safety, health and well-being. Victims may suffer anxiety, poor sleep and reduced concentration, and a climate of fear stops crew speaking up about hazards, directly undermining safe operations.
10. Which of the following is a possible consequence of harassment for the perpetrator?
- A. Automatic promotion
- B. Disciplinary action, dismissal, loss of future employment and possible criminal prosecution
- C. Exemption from the onboard complaint procedure
- D. Extension of the contract
Answer: B — Disciplinary action, dismissal, loss of future employment and possible criminal prosecution
Consequences extend to perpetrators as well as victims. Depending on the seriousness, company policy and law, the perpetrator may face disciplinary measures, dismissal, blacklisting by employers and, for offences such as sexual assault, criminal prosecution.
11. How can violence and harassment on board affect the shipping company as a stakeholder?
- A. It has no effect on the company as the matter is personal
- B. It reduces the company's insurance premiums
- C. It can lead to legal liability, reputational damage, loss of charter business, high crew turnover and difficulty recruiting
- D. It only affects the flag State
Answer: C — It can lead to legal liability, reputational damage, loss of charter business, high crew turnover and difficulty recruiting
Stakeholders such as the shipowner, manager, charterers and the wider industry suffer from violence and harassment through legal claims, reputational harm, poor retention and recruitment, particularly of women seafarers, and the safety consequences of a degraded working culture.
12. Which practice most helps to prevent violence and harassment and create an inclusive work environment on board?
- A. Avoiding any discussion of the company's harassment policy
- B. Allowing jokes about nationality and religion to build team spirit
- C. Showing respect for cultural, religious, gender and ethnic diversity, and senior officers setting a clear example of zero tolerance
- D. Keeping juniors separate from officers at all times
Answer: C — Showing respect for cultural, religious, gender and ethnic diversity, and senior officers setting a clear example of zero tolerance
The PSSR 2026 outline requires trainees to value teamwork, respect for cultural, religious, gender and ethnic diversity, conflict management and an inclusive work environment. Leadership by senior officers is central to setting acceptable standards of behaviour.
13. Under DGS Circular 53 of 2025, how are existing officers, ratings and trainees who already hold a PSSR certificate to complete the new violence and harassment competence?
- A. By an oral examination at the Mercantile Marine Department
- B. By completing the e-learning programme on the DGS online Learning Management System and keeping the completion certificate with their BST or PSSR certificate
- C. No action is required for existing seafarers
- D. By repeating the entire Basic Safety Training course
Answer: B — By completing the e-learning programme on the DGS online Learning Management System and keeping the completion certificate with their BST or PSSR certificate
The circular requires all other existing officers, ratings and trainees, when ashore, to complete the DGS LMS e-learning course for the PSSR amendment 2026 and attach the certificate to their BST or PSSR certificate. Those serving on board may complete it after signing off and before rejoining.
14. Under DGS Circular 53 of 2025, the new violence and harassment competence for officers' preparatory, competency and revalidation courses is to be combined with which existing training?
- A. Medical First Aid
- B. Ship Security Awareness training
- C. Bridge Resource Management
- D. The 6-hour Gender Sensitization training mandated by DGS Order No. 01 of 2023
Answer: D — The 6-hour Gender Sensitization training mandated by DGS Order No. 01 of 2023
The circular directs that the additional competency requirements be combined with the topics of the 6-hour Gender Sensitization training mandated by DGS Order 01 of 2023 in preparatory, competency and revalidation courses for deck and engineer officers, and that certificates bear an annotation of completion.
15. You witness a shipmate being verbally abused and humiliated by another crew member in the mess room. What is the most appropriate first response as a bystander?
- A. Join in so the situation does not escalate against you
- B. Ignore it because it is not your concern
- C. Intervene safely, for example by calmly interrupting or distracting, without putting yourself at risk, then support the victim and report it
- D. Wait until the end of the contract and then mention it ashore
Answer: C — Intervene safely, for example by calmly interrupting or distracting, without putting yourself at risk, then support the victim and report it
The new competence requires basic knowledge of action to intervene in and report violence and harassment. A bystander should act only in a way that is safe, for example by interrupting, distracting or getting help, then check on the victim and report through the proper channel.
16. Bystander intervention techniques are commonly summarised as the '5 Ds'. Which set correctly lists them?
- A. Deter, Detain, Declare, Disclose, Dismiss
- B. Direct, Distract, Delegate, Delay, Document
- C. Discuss, Decide, Do, Debrief, Discipline
- D. Detect, Deny, Defend, Debrief, Discharge
Answer: B — Direct, Distract, Delegate, Delay, Document
The 5 Ds are Direct (speak up), Distract (interrupt the situation), Delegate (get help from someone with authority), Delay (check on the victim afterwards) and Document (record what was seen). They give bystanders safe options suited to the situation.
17. A bystander who is not comfortable confronting a harasser directly asks a senior officer to step in. Which bystander technique is this?
- A. Delegate
- B. Direct
- C. Distract
- D. Delay
Answer: A — Delegate
Delegating means getting help from another person who is better placed to intervene, such as a senior officer or the Master. It is useful when direct intervention may be unsafe or when the bystander lacks the authority to stop the behaviour.
18. A crew member tells you in confidence that she has been sexually harassed by a colleague. What should you do first?
- A. Tell her she must have misunderstood the colleague's intentions
- B. Listen calmly without judgement, believe her account, reassure her that it is not her fault and ask how she wishes to be supported
- C. Immediately announce the matter at the next safety meeting
- D. Confront the colleague in front of the crew
Answer: B — Listen calmly without judgement, believe her account, reassure her that it is not her fault and ask how she wishes to be supported
Trauma-informed support starts with listening without judgement, believing the person, not blaming them and respecting their choices and confidentiality. The victim should then be helped to use the reporting procedure and access support.
19. Which of the following is a basic principle of a trauma-informed response?
- A. Deciding on the victim's behalf what action to take without consulting them
- B. Prioritising the victim's safety, choice, trust and confidentiality and avoiding actions that re-traumatise them
- C. Arranging a face-to-face meeting between the victim and the alleged perpetrator
- D. Pressing the victim to repeat every detail many times to check consistency
Answer: B — Prioritising the victim's safety, choice, trust and confidentiality and avoiding actions that re-traumatise them
A trauma-informed response recognises the impact of trauma and focuses on safety, trustworthiness, choice, collaboration and empowerment. Repeated questioning, blame or forced confrontation with the perpetrator can re-traumatise the victim.
20. Which statement is an example of victim-blaming that must be avoided when responding to a report of harassment?
- A. This is not your fault
- B. You did the right thing by telling me
- C. Why did you go to his cabin in the first place?
- D. We will make sure you are safe
Answer: C — Why did you go to his cabin in the first place?
Questions implying the victim caused or invited the behaviour shift responsibility away from the perpetrator and discourage reporting. A trauma-informed response reassures the victim that the behaviour is not their fault and that they will be supported.
21. A seafarer reports that she has just been sexually assaulted on board. Which immediate action is most appropriate?
- A. Ask her to wait until the next port before telling anyone
- B. Ensure she is safe and separated from the alleged perpetrator, offer medical care, preserve evidence where possible and inform the Master in line with company procedure
- C. Ask the alleged perpetrator to apologise and treat the matter as closed
- D. Advise her to shower and wash her clothes so she can feel better
Answer: B — Ensure she is safe and separated from the alleged perpetrator, offer medical care, preserve evidence where possible and inform the Master in line with company procedure
After a sexual assault the priorities are the victim's safety, medical care and emotional support. Where she consents, physical evidence should be preserved by not washing or discarding clothing, and the matter must be reported to the Master and company for investigation and onward reporting.
22. If the alleged harasser is the Master, to whom should a seafarer normally report the matter?
- A. To no one, since the Master has overriding authority
- B. To the agent at the next port only
- C. To the company, for example the Designated Person Ashore or the designated contact in the company's harassment policy
- D. To the pilot when he boards
Answer: C — To the company, for example the Designated Person Ashore or the designated contact in the company's harassment policy
Company procedures provide an alternative reporting route when the person in charge is involved. The DPA under the ISM Code has direct access to the highest level of management, and company anti-harassment policies name designated contacts; seafarers may also complain to external authorities.
23. When recording a case of harassment on board, the record should contain:
- A. A summary for posting on the crew notice board
- B. Factual details such as date, time, place, what was said or done, persons involved and witnesses, kept confidential
- C. The recorder's personal opinion of the victim's character
- D. Only the name of the victim
Answer: B — Factual details such as date, time, place, what was said or done, persons involved and witnesses, kept confidential
The PSSR 2026 outline requires trainees to record cases of violence and harassment. Records should be factual, accurate and made as soon as possible, covering what happened, when, where and who was present, and must be kept confidential to protect those involved.
24. Why must information about a harassment complaint be kept confidential?
- A. To protect the victim and witnesses from gossip and retaliation and ensure a fair process for all parties
- B. To avoid informing the company
- C. To protect the reputation of the vessel at all costs
- D. Because harassment is not a reportable matter
Answer: A — To protect the victim and witnesses from gossip and retaliation and ensure a fair process for all parties
Confidentiality encourages reporting, protects the victim and witnesses against victimisation and preserves the fairness of any investigation. Information should be shared only with those who need it to act on the complaint.
25. A seafarer who reports harassment is afterwards given extra night duties and threatened with a bad appraisal. This is:
- A. Retaliation or victimisation, which is prohibited and must itself be reported
- B. Acceptable if approved by the head of department
- C. Normal adjustment of the work schedule
- D. A matter of conflict resolution only
Answer: A — Retaliation or victimisation, which is prohibited and must itself be reported
Protection against victimisation is essential for any complaint system. MLC 2006 Regulation 5.1.5 requires onboard complaint procedures to safeguard seafarers against victimisation for filing complaints, and company harassment policies prohibit retaliation.
26. Which of the following is an early warning sign that a crew member may be a victim of bullying or harassment?
- A. Withdrawal, avoiding certain people or places, changes in mood, poor sleep or a sudden fall in work performance
- B. Improved appetite and energy
- C. Increased participation in social activities
- D. Volunteering for extra training
Answer: A — Withdrawal, avoiding certain people or places, changes in mood, poor sleep or a sudden fall in work performance
Being able to identify violence and harassment includes recognising its effects on victims. Withdrawal, anxiety, avoiding particular colleagues, irritability, sleep problems and declining performance can indicate that a person is being harassed and needs support.
27. Which behaviour could trigger or escalate violence on board and should prompt early intervention?
- A. A colleague politely asking for help with a task
- B. A crew member requesting a change of cabin for noise reasons
- C. Heavy drinking, aggressive outbursts, threats and repeated taunting of a crew member
- D. A rating asking for clarification of an order
Answer: C — Heavy drinking, aggressive outbursts, threats and repeated taunting of a crew member
The response syllabus asks trainees to identify behaviours that could trigger violence and harassment. Intoxication, verbal aggression, threats and taunting are warning signs; intervening early and informing a senior officer can prevent escalation to physical violence.
28. When supporting a colleague who has experienced harassment, a bystander should also:
- A. Discuss the case with other crew to share the burden
- B. Recognise the effect on themselves and seek support if needed, as witnessing harm can also be distressing
- C. Avoid the victim to stay neutral
- D. Ignore their own distress because only the victim matters
Answer: B — Recognise the effect on themselves and seek support if needed, as witnessing harm can also be distressing
The amended STCW table requires understanding of how to provide appropriate support to a victim, bystanders and self. Witnessing or handling harassment can cause stress, so seafarers should look after their own well-being and use available welfare and counselling services.
29. Which is the correct approach when a victim does not want the matter formally investigated?
- A. Force a formal investigation regardless of risk
- B. Respect the victim's wishes where possible, keep a confidential record, keep offering support, and escalate only where there is a serious risk to safety or a legal duty to report
- C. Destroy all records of the disclosure
- D. Tell the alleged perpetrator so he can explain
Answer: B — Respect the victim's wishes where possible, keep a confidential record, keep offering support, and escalate only where there is a serious risk to safety or a legal duty to report
A trauma-informed approach gives the victim choice and control. However, where there is a serious risk to the victim or others, or the conduct is a crime such as sexual assault, the Master and company may need to act, and the victim should be told what will happen.
30. What is the main purpose of a company's anti-harassment policy being displayed and explained on board?
- A. To meet a decorative requirement of the SMS
- B. To replace the onboard complaint procedure
- C. To restrict seafarers from contacting authorities ashore
- D. To make clear what behaviour is unacceptable, how to report it, how complaints are handled and that retaliation is not tolerated
Answer: D — To make clear what behaviour is unacceptable, how to report it, how complaints are handled and that retaliation is not tolerated
A clear policy sets expected standards of behaviour, explains reporting channels including confidential contacts ashore, and assures protection against victimisation. Shipping companies are guided by DGS Circular 53 of 2025 to include this competence in their familiarisation programmes.
Set 5 — 34 RPSSR exit exam questions with answers
1. During a disclosure of harassment, which question is most appropriate?
- A. What were you wearing?
- B. What would help you feel safe right now?
- C. Are you sure you are not exaggerating?
- D. Why did you not report it earlier?
Answer: B — What would help you feel safe right now?
Trauma-informed questioning is open, non-judgemental and focused on the person's safety and needs. Questions that suggest blame, doubt or delay discourage disclosure and can cause further harm.
2. On recognising that a crew member is in immediate danger of physical assault, the first priority is to:
- A. Wait for the company's instructions
- B. Take a photograph for evidence
- C. Record the event in the logbook
- D. Ensure the immediate safety of the person, raising the alarm or calling for help without putting yourself at undue risk
Answer: D — Ensure the immediate safety of the person, raising the alarm or calling for help without putting yourself at undue risk
Where there is an immediate threat, safety comes first: separate the parties if this can be done safely, call for help from senior officers and protect the person at risk. Documentation and reporting follow once the situation is under control.
3. Under the amended STCW Table A-VI/1-4, which criterion is used to evaluate the competence of responding to violence and harassment?
- A. Communication using the GMDSS equipment
- B. Ability to don an immersion suit within two minutes
- C. Ability to steer the ship in an emergency
- D. Acceptable practices and procedures for intervention in and reporting of violence and harassment are observed at all times
Answer: D — Acceptable practices and procedures for intervention in and reporting of violence and harassment are observed at all times
The evaluation criteria in the new competence state that acceptable practices and procedures designed for prevention, and for intervention in and reporting of violence and harassment, including sexual harassment, bullying and sexual assault, are observed at all times.
4. A cadet says a senior officer keeps sending him insulting messages late at night on the crew chat group. The cadet should be advised to:
- A. Reply with similar insults
- B. Leave the group and say nothing
- C. Delete all the messages to avoid trouble
- D. Keep the messages as evidence (for example screenshots), avoid retaliating, and report the behaviour through the company procedure
Answer: D — Keep the messages as evidence (for example screenshots), avoid retaliating, and report the behaviour through the company procedure
Cyber-harassment leaves a digital trail. Preserving messages helps any investigation, while not retaliating avoids escalation. The cadet should report it to the Master or a designated company contact, using an alternative channel if the senior officer is in the reporting line.
5. The Maritime Labour Convention, 2006 was adopted by which organisation?
- A. International Labour Organization
- B. International Maritime Organization
- C. International Transport Workers' Federation
- D. International Chamber of Shipping
Answer: A — International Labour Organization
MLC 2006 was adopted by the International Labour Conference of the ILO in Geneva in February 2006. It consolidates and updates over 60 earlier maritime labour conventions and recommendations into a single instrument often called the seafarers' bill of rights.
6. MLC 2006 is often described as the 'fourth pillar' of the international maritime regulatory regime, alongside which three IMO conventions?
- A. SOLAS, STCW and MARPOL
- B. COLREG, Load Lines and Tonnage
- C. SAR, FAL and CLC
- D. ISPS, ISM and IMDG
Answer: A — SOLAS, STCW and MARPOL
MLC 2006 complements the three key IMO conventions, SOLAS, STCW and MARPOL, by setting minimum standards for seafarers' working and living conditions, and is therefore referred to as the fourth pillar of maritime regulation.
7. Under MLC 2006, the minimum age for employment or work on board a ship is:
- A. 17 years
- B. 18 years
- C. 15 years
- D. 16 years
Answer: D — 16 years
Regulation 1.1 and Standard A1.1 prohibit the employment, engagement or work on board a ship of any person under the age of 16. Higher age limits apply to night work and hazardous work.
8. Which certificate, together with the Declaration of Maritime Labour Compliance, must be carried by ships of 500 GT and above on international voyages under MLC 2006?
- A. Maritime Labour Certificate
- B. International Ship Security Certificate
- C. International Safety Management Certificate
- D. Minimum Safe Manning Document
Answer: A — Maritime Labour Certificate
Regulation 5.1.3 requires ships of 500 GT or over engaged in international voyages to carry a Maritime Labour Certificate and a Declaration of Maritime Labour Compliance, certifying that seafarers' working and living conditions have been inspected and meet the Convention.
9. The maximum period of validity of a Maritime Labour Certificate is:
- A. 5 years
- B. 2.5 years
- C. 10 years
- D. 1 year
Answer: A — 5 years
Standard A5.1.3 provides that the Maritime Labour Certificate is issued for a period not exceeding five years, subject to an intermediate inspection between the second and third anniversary dates.
10. Under MLC 2006, the minimum notice period to be given by a seafarer or shipowner for early termination of the Seafarers' Employment Agreement shall not be shorter than:
- A. 24 hours
- B. 3 days
- C. 7 days
- D. 30 days
Answer: C — 7 days
Standard A2.1.5 requires each Member to establish minimum notice periods for early termination of an SEA, which shall not be shorter than seven days. Shorter notice may be allowed in urgent circumstances on compassionate grounds without penalty.
11. Under MLC 2006, seafarers' wages must be paid at intervals of no greater than:
- A. One month
- B. One week
- C. Two months
- D. The end of the contract
Answer: A — One month
Standard A2.2.1 requires payments due to seafarers to be made at no greater than monthly intervals and in accordance with any applicable collective agreement. Seafarers must also be given a monthly account of payments due and amounts paid.
12. Under MLC 2006, the maximum duration of service on board after which a seafarer is entitled to repatriation shall be less than:
- A. 9 months
- B. 18 months
- C. 6 months
- D. 12 months
Answer: D — 12 months
Standard A2.5.1.2 provides that the maximum duration of service periods on board following which a seafarer is entitled to repatriation shall be less than 12 months.
13. Under MLC 2006, the minimum inside dimensions of a berth in seafarers' accommodation shall be at least:
- A. 180 cm by 70 cm
- B. 190 cm by 75 cm
- C. 198 cm by 80 cm
- D. 210 cm by 90 cm
Answer: C — 198 cm by 80 cm
Standard A3.1.9 requires the minimum inside dimensions of a berth to be at least 198 centimetres by 80 centimetres, as part of the accommodation standards intended to give seafarers decent and adequate sleeping arrangements on board.
14. Under MLC 2006, a ship should be provided with separate hospital accommodation when it carries 15 or more seafarers and is engaged in a voyage of more than:
- A. 3 days
- B. 7 days
- C. 14 days
- D. 24 hours
Answer: A — 3 days
Standard A3.1.12 requires ships carrying 15 or more seafarers and engaged in a voyage of more than three days to provide separate hospital accommodation to be used exclusively for medical purposes.
15. Under MLC 2006, a ship's safety committee must be established on board ships with how many or more seafarers?
- A. Ten
- B. Five
- C. Twenty
- D. Three
Answer: B — Five
Standard A4.3.2 requires national laws to specify that a ship's safety committee be established on board a ship on which there are five or more seafarers, with participation of seafarers' safety representatives.
16. Under MLC 2006 Regulation 5.1.5, onboard complaint procedures must include safeguards against:
- A. Victimisation of seafarers for filing complaints
- B. Port State inspections
- C. Flag changes
- D. Overtime claims
Answer: A — Victimisation of seafarers for filing complaints
Regulation 5.1.5 requires ships to have onboard procedures for fair, effective and expeditious handling of seafarer complaints, and prohibits and penalises any kind of victimisation of a seafarer for filing a complaint.
17. Under MLC 2006, onboard complaints should normally be resolved:
- A. Only by port State control
- B. At the highest level, by the company's board of directors
- C. Only after the seafarer signs off
- D. At the lowest level possible
Answer: D — At the lowest level possible
Standard A5.1.5.2 states that onboard complaint procedures should seek to resolve complaints at the lowest level possible, while retaining the seafarer's right to complain directly to the Master and to external authorities.
18. Under MLC 2006, the financial security system for abandonment must cover outstanding wages and entitlements for a period of at least:
- A. Four months
- B. Twelve months
- C. Two months
- D. One month
Answer: A — Four months
Standard A2.5.2, introduced by the 2014 amendments, requires the financial security to cover outstanding wages and other entitlements limited to four months, together with repatriation costs and essential needs such as food, water, accommodation and medical care.
19. Which of the following is an example of operational, rather than accidental, pollution from ships?
- A. Routine discharge of oily bilge water, sewage, garbage and exhaust emissions during normal operation
- B. Oil released after a grounding
- C. Cargo lost in a collision
- D. Fuel spilled from a sinking ship
Answer: A — Routine discharge of oily bilge water, sewage, garbage and exhaust emissions during normal operation
The PSSR syllabus distinguishes operational pollution, which arises from routine ship operations such as discharges of bilge water, ballast, sewage, garbage and engine exhaust, from accidental pollution caused by casualties such as collision, grounding, fire or sinking.
20. Why is oil particularly harmful to seabirds?
- A. It only affects their eyesight temporarily
- B. It makes them heavier so they fly faster
- C. It has no effect because birds avoid oil slicks
- D. It mats their feathers, destroying insulation and buoyancy, leading to hypothermia and drowning, and is poisonous when swallowed during preening
Answer: D — It mats their feathers, destroying insulation and buoyancy, leading to hypothermia and drowning, and is poisonous when swallowed during preening
Oil coats feathers and destroys their waterproofing and insulating properties, so birds lose body heat and buoyancy. Birds also ingest oil while trying to clean themselves, causing internal damage and poisoning.
21. The transfer of harmful aquatic organisms and pathogens in ships' ballast water is addressed by which convention?
- A. MARPOL Annex IV
- B. AFS Convention 2001
- C. London Convention 1972
- D. International Convention for the Control and Management of Ships' Ballast Water and Sediments, 2004
Answer: D — International Convention for the Control and Management of Ships' Ballast Water and Sediments, 2004
Ballast water can carry invasive species that establish themselves in new ecosystems and damage biodiversity, fisheries and health. The BWM Convention, in force since 8 September 2017, requires ships to manage ballast water and sediments to prevent such transfers.
22. The AFS Convention 2001 banned the use of which harmful substance in ships' anti-fouling paints?
- A. Zinc chromate
- B. Tributyltin (TBT) and other organotin compounds
- C. Silicone
- D. Copper oxide
Answer: B — Tributyltin (TBT) and other organotin compounds
The International Convention on the Control of Harmful Anti-fouling Systems on Ships prohibits organotin compounds such as tributyltin, which proved highly toxic to marine life, causing deformities in shellfish and accumulating in the food chain.
23. Excess nutrients from untreated sewage discharged into enclosed coastal waters can cause:
- A. Lower water temperatures
- B. Increased oxygen levels and clearer water
- C. Faster dispersal of oil
- D. Eutrophication, with algal blooms that deplete dissolved oxygen and kill fish and other marine life
Answer: D — Eutrophication, with algal blooms that deplete dissolved oxygen and kill fish and other marine life
Sewage adds nutrients such as nitrogen and phosphorus and organic matter. In confined waters this promotes algal blooms; when the algae die and decay, oxygen is depleted, creating dead zones, while pathogens in sewage also threaten human health and shellfish.
24. Plastics discharged from ships harm the marine environment mainly because they:
- A. Persist for very long periods, are ingested by or entangle marine animals, and break down into microplastics that enter the food chain
- B. Sink immediately and cause no harm
- C. Dissolve quickly and change water colour
- D. Increase plankton growth
Answer: A — Persist for very long periods, are ingested by or entangle marine animals, and break down into microplastics that enter the food chain
Plastics are persistent and do not biodegrade readily. Animals such as turtles, seabirds and mammals eat or become entangled in them, lost fishing gear continues to trap animals, and fragments break into microplastics. This is why MARPOL Annex V prohibits discharge of all plastics.
25. Sea areas designated by IMO for special protection because of their ecological, socio-economic or scientific significance and vulnerability to damage from shipping are called:
- A. Traffic Separation Schemes
- B. Areas To Be Avoided only
- C. Emission Control Areas
- D. Particularly Sensitive Sea Areas
Answer: D — Particularly Sensitive Sea Areas
Particularly Sensitive Sea Areas are designated by IMO where an area's ecological, socio-economic or scientific attributes are vulnerable to international shipping. Associated protective measures may include routeing measures and discharge restrictions; the Great Barrier Reef was the first, in 1990.
26. Sulphur oxide emissions from ships' exhausts contribute to which environmental problem?
- A. Ozone layer repair
- B. Increase in sea level
- C. Acid rain and harmful fine particulate matter affecting human health and ecosystems
- D. Ballast water contamination
Answer: C — Acid rain and harmful fine particulate matter affecting human health and ecosystems
Sulphur oxides from burning high-sulphur fuel form sulphate aerosols and acidic deposition, damaging ecosystems, and contribute to fine particulate matter that harms respiratory health in coastal and port areas. MARPOL Annex VI therefore limits fuel sulphur content.
27. In the Tuckman model of team development, the stage where members test boundaries and disagreements emerge over roles and methods is called:
- A. Storming
- B. Performing
- C. Forming
- D. Norming
Answer: A — Storming
Tuckman's stages are forming, storming, norming and performing. Storming is the stage of conflict as members assert ideas and test the leader; handled well, it leads to agreed norms and an effective, performing team.
28. Which conflict-handling approach aims for a win-win solution that satisfies the concerns of both parties?
- A. Competing
- B. Accommodating
- C. Avoiding
- D. Collaborating
Answer: D — Collaborating
Collaborating combines high assertiveness with high cooperation: both parties work together to find a solution that fully addresses each other's concerns. It takes time but produces the most durable resolution of conflicts.
29. When a conflict arises between two crew members, it is generally best to:
- A. Discuss it openly at mealtimes with the whole crew
- B. Report only the person you dislike
- C. Address it early and privately, focusing on the problem and facts rather than personalities
- D. Let it continue until the end of the voyage
Answer: C — Address it early and privately, focusing on the problem and facts rather than personalities
Unresolved conflict on board affects morale, communication and safety. Effective conflict resolution involves dealing with issues promptly, in private, listening to both sides, focusing on behaviour and facts and agreeing a way forward.
30. On a ship with a multinational crew, good working relationships are best promoted by:
- A. Allowing each nationality to work only with its own group
- B. Requiring everyone to adopt the customs of the majority nationality
- C. Respecting cultural and religious differences, using a common working language and avoiding stereotypes
- D. Avoiding any social contact
Answer: C — Respecting cultural and religious differences, using a common working language and avoiding stereotypes
Mixed-nationality crews are common. Respect for different cultures and religions, use of the common working language, sensitivity to differences in communication style and avoiding stereotypes build trust and teamwork on board.
31. Which conflict-handling approach involves one party giving up its own concerns to satisfy the other?
- A. Collaborating
- B. Compromising
- C. Competing
- D. Accommodating
Answer: D — Accommodating
Accommodating is cooperative but unassertive: one party yields to the other. It may be useful to preserve relationships over minor issues, but if used habitually it can leave concerns unresolved and lead to resentment.
32. The period of the day when the human body's alertness is naturally at its lowest, increasing the risk of fatigue-related errors, is approximately:
- A. 1200 to 1400 only
- B. 0800 to 1000
- C. 0200 to 0600
- D. 1800 to 2000
Answer: C — 0200 to 0600
Because of the circadian rhythm, alertness and performance are lowest in the early morning hours, roughly between 0200 and 0600, known as the window of circadian low. Watchkeepers on the 0000-0400 watch are particularly vulnerable.
33. A very brief, involuntary episode of sleep lasting from a fraction of a second to several seconds, often without the person being aware of it, is known as:
- A. Sleep inertia
- B. REM sleep
- C. A power nap
- D. A microsleep
Answer: D — A microsleep
Microsleeps occur when a person is severely fatigued. During these brief lapses the person does not respond to information, which can be fatal when on watch, operating machinery or steering. They are a sign that sleep is urgently needed.
34. Which is the only effective long-term way to recover from fatigue?
- A. Adequate, good quality sleep
- B. Taking cold showers
- C. Drinking strong coffee
- D. Increasing physical exercise
Answer: A — Adequate, good quality sleep
Caffeine, fresh air or exercise may temporarily mask sleepiness but do not remove the underlying need for sleep. IMO Guidelines on Fatigue emphasise that only sufficient sleep of good quality restores alertness and repays sleep debt.
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