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RPSSR exit exam questions and answers — Set 5 — Refresher Personal Safety & Social Responsibilities

Set 5 of the Refresher Personal Safety & Social Responsibilities (RPSSR) exit exam bank — 34 of 154 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

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Set 5 — 34 RPSSR exit exam questions with answers

1. During a disclosure of harassment, which question is most appropriate?

  • A. What were you wearing?
  • B. What would help you feel safe right now?
  • C. Are you sure you are not exaggerating?
  • D. Why did you not report it earlier?
Answer: B — What would help you feel safe right now?
Trauma-informed questioning is open, non-judgemental and focused on the person's safety and needs. Questions that suggest blame, doubt or delay discourage disclosure and can cause further harm.

2. On recognising that a crew member is in immediate danger of physical assault, the first priority is to:

  • A. Wait for the company's instructions
  • B. Take a photograph for evidence
  • C. Record the event in the logbook
  • D. Ensure the immediate safety of the person, raising the alarm or calling for help without putting yourself at undue risk
Answer: D — Ensure the immediate safety of the person, raising the alarm or calling for help without putting yourself at undue risk
Where there is an immediate threat, safety comes first: separate the parties if this can be done safely, call for help from senior officers and protect the person at risk. Documentation and reporting follow once the situation is under control.

3. Under the amended STCW Table A-VI/1-4, which criterion is used to evaluate the competence of responding to violence and harassment?

  • A. Communication using the GMDSS equipment
  • B. Ability to don an immersion suit within two minutes
  • C. Ability to steer the ship in an emergency
  • D. Acceptable practices and procedures for intervention in and reporting of violence and harassment are observed at all times
Answer: D — Acceptable practices and procedures for intervention in and reporting of violence and harassment are observed at all times
The evaluation criteria in the new competence state that acceptable practices and procedures designed for prevention, and for intervention in and reporting of violence and harassment, including sexual harassment, bullying and sexual assault, are observed at all times.

4. A cadet says a senior officer keeps sending him insulting messages late at night on the crew chat group. The cadet should be advised to:

  • A. Reply with similar insults
  • B. Leave the group and say nothing
  • C. Delete all the messages to avoid trouble
  • D. Keep the messages as evidence (for example screenshots), avoid retaliating, and report the behaviour through the company procedure
Answer: D — Keep the messages as evidence (for example screenshots), avoid retaliating, and report the behaviour through the company procedure
Cyber-harassment leaves a digital trail. Preserving messages helps any investigation, while not retaliating avoids escalation. The cadet should report it to the Master or a designated company contact, using an alternative channel if the senior officer is in the reporting line.

5. The Maritime Labour Convention, 2006 was adopted by which organisation?

  • A. International Labour Organization
  • B. International Maritime Organization
  • C. International Transport Workers' Federation
  • D. International Chamber of Shipping
Answer: A — International Labour Organization
MLC 2006 was adopted by the International Labour Conference of the ILO in Geneva in February 2006. It consolidates and updates over 60 earlier maritime labour conventions and recommendations into a single instrument often called the seafarers' bill of rights.

6. MLC 2006 is often described as the 'fourth pillar' of the international maritime regulatory regime, alongside which three IMO conventions?

  • A. SOLAS, STCW and MARPOL
  • B. COLREG, Load Lines and Tonnage
  • C. SAR, FAL and CLC
  • D. ISPS, ISM and IMDG
Answer: A — SOLAS, STCW and MARPOL
MLC 2006 complements the three key IMO conventions, SOLAS, STCW and MARPOL, by setting minimum standards for seafarers' working and living conditions, and is therefore referred to as the fourth pillar of maritime regulation.

7. Under MLC 2006, the minimum age for employment or work on board a ship is:

  • A. 17 years
  • B. 18 years
  • C. 15 years
  • D. 16 years
Answer: D — 16 years
Regulation 1.1 and Standard A1.1 prohibit the employment, engagement or work on board a ship of any person under the age of 16. Higher age limits apply to night work and hazardous work.

8. Which certificate, together with the Declaration of Maritime Labour Compliance, must be carried by ships of 500 GT and above on international voyages under MLC 2006?

  • A. Maritime Labour Certificate
  • B. International Ship Security Certificate
  • C. International Safety Management Certificate
  • D. Minimum Safe Manning Document
Answer: A — Maritime Labour Certificate
Regulation 5.1.3 requires ships of 500 GT or over engaged in international voyages to carry a Maritime Labour Certificate and a Declaration of Maritime Labour Compliance, certifying that seafarers' working and living conditions have been inspected and meet the Convention.

9. The maximum period of validity of a Maritime Labour Certificate is:

  • A. 5 years
  • B. 2.5 years
  • C. 10 years
  • D. 1 year
Answer: A — 5 years
Standard A5.1.3 provides that the Maritime Labour Certificate is issued for a period not exceeding five years, subject to an intermediate inspection between the second and third anniversary dates.

10. Under MLC 2006, the minimum notice period to be given by a seafarer or shipowner for early termination of the Seafarers' Employment Agreement shall not be shorter than:

  • A. 24 hours
  • B. 3 days
  • C. 7 days
  • D. 30 days
Answer: C — 7 days
Standard A2.1.5 requires each Member to establish minimum notice periods for early termination of an SEA, which shall not be shorter than seven days. Shorter notice may be allowed in urgent circumstances on compassionate grounds without penalty.

11. Under MLC 2006, seafarers' wages must be paid at intervals of no greater than:

  • A. One month
  • B. One week
  • C. Two months
  • D. The end of the contract
Answer: A — One month
Standard A2.2.1 requires payments due to seafarers to be made at no greater than monthly intervals and in accordance with any applicable collective agreement. Seafarers must also be given a monthly account of payments due and amounts paid.

12. Under MLC 2006, the maximum duration of service on board after which a seafarer is entitled to repatriation shall be less than:

  • A. 9 months
  • B. 18 months
  • C. 6 months
  • D. 12 months
Answer: D — 12 months
Standard A2.5.1.2 provides that the maximum duration of service periods on board following which a seafarer is entitled to repatriation shall be less than 12 months.

13. Under MLC 2006, the minimum inside dimensions of a berth in seafarers' accommodation shall be at least:

  • A. 180 cm by 70 cm
  • B. 190 cm by 75 cm
  • C. 198 cm by 80 cm
  • D. 210 cm by 90 cm
Answer: C — 198 cm by 80 cm
Standard A3.1.9 requires the minimum inside dimensions of a berth to be at least 198 centimetres by 80 centimetres, as part of the accommodation standards intended to give seafarers decent and adequate sleeping arrangements on board.

14. Under MLC 2006, a ship should be provided with separate hospital accommodation when it carries 15 or more seafarers and is engaged in a voyage of more than:

  • A. 3 days
  • B. 7 days
  • C. 14 days
  • D. 24 hours
Answer: A — 3 days
Standard A3.1.12 requires ships carrying 15 or more seafarers and engaged in a voyage of more than three days to provide separate hospital accommodation to be used exclusively for medical purposes.

15. Under MLC 2006, a ship's safety committee must be established on board ships with how many or more seafarers?

  • A. Ten
  • B. Five
  • C. Twenty
  • D. Three
Answer: B — Five
Standard A4.3.2 requires national laws to specify that a ship's safety committee be established on board a ship on which there are five or more seafarers, with participation of seafarers' safety representatives.

16. Under MLC 2006 Regulation 5.1.5, onboard complaint procedures must include safeguards against:

  • A. Victimisation of seafarers for filing complaints
  • B. Port State inspections
  • C. Flag changes
  • D. Overtime claims
Answer: A — Victimisation of seafarers for filing complaints
Regulation 5.1.5 requires ships to have onboard procedures for fair, effective and expeditious handling of seafarer complaints, and prohibits and penalises any kind of victimisation of a seafarer for filing a complaint.

17. Under MLC 2006, onboard complaints should normally be resolved:

  • A. Only by port State control
  • B. At the highest level, by the company's board of directors
  • C. Only after the seafarer signs off
  • D. At the lowest level possible
Answer: D — At the lowest level possible
Standard A5.1.5.2 states that onboard complaint procedures should seek to resolve complaints at the lowest level possible, while retaining the seafarer's right to complain directly to the Master and to external authorities.

18. Under MLC 2006, the financial security system for abandonment must cover outstanding wages and entitlements for a period of at least:

  • A. Four months
  • B. Twelve months
  • C. Two months
  • D. One month
Answer: A — Four months
Standard A2.5.2, introduced by the 2014 amendments, requires the financial security to cover outstanding wages and other entitlements limited to four months, together with repatriation costs and essential needs such as food, water, accommodation and medical care.

19. Which of the following is an example of operational, rather than accidental, pollution from ships?

  • A. Routine discharge of oily bilge water, sewage, garbage and exhaust emissions during normal operation
  • B. Oil released after a grounding
  • C. Cargo lost in a collision
  • D. Fuel spilled from a sinking ship
Answer: A — Routine discharge of oily bilge water, sewage, garbage and exhaust emissions during normal operation
The PSSR syllabus distinguishes operational pollution, which arises from routine ship operations such as discharges of bilge water, ballast, sewage, garbage and engine exhaust, from accidental pollution caused by casualties such as collision, grounding, fire or sinking.

20. Why is oil particularly harmful to seabirds?

  • A. It only affects their eyesight temporarily
  • B. It makes them heavier so they fly faster
  • C. It has no effect because birds avoid oil slicks
  • D. It mats their feathers, destroying insulation and buoyancy, leading to hypothermia and drowning, and is poisonous when swallowed during preening
Answer: D — It mats their feathers, destroying insulation and buoyancy, leading to hypothermia and drowning, and is poisonous when swallowed during preening
Oil coats feathers and destroys their waterproofing and insulating properties, so birds lose body heat and buoyancy. Birds also ingest oil while trying to clean themselves, causing internal damage and poisoning.

21. The transfer of harmful aquatic organisms and pathogens in ships' ballast water is addressed by which convention?

  • A. MARPOL Annex IV
  • B. AFS Convention 2001
  • C. London Convention 1972
  • D. International Convention for the Control and Management of Ships' Ballast Water and Sediments, 2004
Answer: D — International Convention for the Control and Management of Ships' Ballast Water and Sediments, 2004
Ballast water can carry invasive species that establish themselves in new ecosystems and damage biodiversity, fisheries and health. The BWM Convention, in force since 8 September 2017, requires ships to manage ballast water and sediments to prevent such transfers.

22. The AFS Convention 2001 banned the use of which harmful substance in ships' anti-fouling paints?

  • A. Zinc chromate
  • B. Tributyltin (TBT) and other organotin compounds
  • C. Silicone
  • D. Copper oxide
Answer: B — Tributyltin (TBT) and other organotin compounds
The International Convention on the Control of Harmful Anti-fouling Systems on Ships prohibits organotin compounds such as tributyltin, which proved highly toxic to marine life, causing deformities in shellfish and accumulating in the food chain.

23. Excess nutrients from untreated sewage discharged into enclosed coastal waters can cause:

  • A. Lower water temperatures
  • B. Increased oxygen levels and clearer water
  • C. Faster dispersal of oil
  • D. Eutrophication, with algal blooms that deplete dissolved oxygen and kill fish and other marine life
Answer: D — Eutrophication, with algal blooms that deplete dissolved oxygen and kill fish and other marine life
Sewage adds nutrients such as nitrogen and phosphorus and organic matter. In confined waters this promotes algal blooms; when the algae die and decay, oxygen is depleted, creating dead zones, while pathogens in sewage also threaten human health and shellfish.

24. Plastics discharged from ships harm the marine environment mainly because they:

  • A. Persist for very long periods, are ingested by or entangle marine animals, and break down into microplastics that enter the food chain
  • B. Sink immediately and cause no harm
  • C. Dissolve quickly and change water colour
  • D. Increase plankton growth
Answer: A — Persist for very long periods, are ingested by or entangle marine animals, and break down into microplastics that enter the food chain
Plastics are persistent and do not biodegrade readily. Animals such as turtles, seabirds and mammals eat or become entangled in them, lost fishing gear continues to trap animals, and fragments break into microplastics. This is why MARPOL Annex V prohibits discharge of all plastics.

25. Sea areas designated by IMO for special protection because of their ecological, socio-economic or scientific significance and vulnerability to damage from shipping are called:

  • A. Traffic Separation Schemes
  • B. Areas To Be Avoided only
  • C. Emission Control Areas
  • D. Particularly Sensitive Sea Areas
Answer: D — Particularly Sensitive Sea Areas
Particularly Sensitive Sea Areas are designated by IMO where an area's ecological, socio-economic or scientific attributes are vulnerable to international shipping. Associated protective measures may include routeing measures and discharge restrictions; the Great Barrier Reef was the first, in 1990.

26. Sulphur oxide emissions from ships' exhausts contribute to which environmental problem?

  • A. Ozone layer repair
  • B. Increase in sea level
  • C. Acid rain and harmful fine particulate matter affecting human health and ecosystems
  • D. Ballast water contamination
Answer: C — Acid rain and harmful fine particulate matter affecting human health and ecosystems
Sulphur oxides from burning high-sulphur fuel form sulphate aerosols and acidic deposition, damaging ecosystems, and contribute to fine particulate matter that harms respiratory health in coastal and port areas. MARPOL Annex VI therefore limits fuel sulphur content.

27. In the Tuckman model of team development, the stage where members test boundaries and disagreements emerge over roles and methods is called:

  • A. Storming
  • B. Performing
  • C. Forming
  • D. Norming
Answer: A — Storming
Tuckman's stages are forming, storming, norming and performing. Storming is the stage of conflict as members assert ideas and test the leader; handled well, it leads to agreed norms and an effective, performing team.

28. Which conflict-handling approach aims for a win-win solution that satisfies the concerns of both parties?

  • A. Competing
  • B. Accommodating
  • C. Avoiding
  • D. Collaborating
Answer: D — Collaborating
Collaborating combines high assertiveness with high cooperation: both parties work together to find a solution that fully addresses each other's concerns. It takes time but produces the most durable resolution of conflicts.

29. When a conflict arises between two crew members, it is generally best to:

  • A. Discuss it openly at mealtimes with the whole crew
  • B. Report only the person you dislike
  • C. Address it early and privately, focusing on the problem and facts rather than personalities
  • D. Let it continue until the end of the voyage
Answer: C — Address it early and privately, focusing on the problem and facts rather than personalities
Unresolved conflict on board affects morale, communication and safety. Effective conflict resolution involves dealing with issues promptly, in private, listening to both sides, focusing on behaviour and facts and agreeing a way forward.

30. On a ship with a multinational crew, good working relationships are best promoted by:

  • A. Allowing each nationality to work only with its own group
  • B. Requiring everyone to adopt the customs of the majority nationality
  • C. Respecting cultural and religious differences, using a common working language and avoiding stereotypes
  • D. Avoiding any social contact
Answer: C — Respecting cultural and religious differences, using a common working language and avoiding stereotypes
Mixed-nationality crews are common. Respect for different cultures and religions, use of the common working language, sensitivity to differences in communication style and avoiding stereotypes build trust and teamwork on board.

31. Which conflict-handling approach involves one party giving up its own concerns to satisfy the other?

  • A. Collaborating
  • B. Compromising
  • C. Competing
  • D. Accommodating
Answer: D — Accommodating
Accommodating is cooperative but unassertive: one party yields to the other. It may be useful to preserve relationships over minor issues, but if used habitually it can leave concerns unresolved and lead to resentment.

32. The period of the day when the human body's alertness is naturally at its lowest, increasing the risk of fatigue-related errors, is approximately:

  • A. 1200 to 1400 only
  • B. 0800 to 1000
  • C. 0200 to 0600
  • D. 1800 to 2000
Answer: C — 0200 to 0600
Because of the circadian rhythm, alertness and performance are lowest in the early morning hours, roughly between 0200 and 0600, known as the window of circadian low. Watchkeepers on the 0000-0400 watch are particularly vulnerable.

33. A very brief, involuntary episode of sleep lasting from a fraction of a second to several seconds, often without the person being aware of it, is known as:

  • A. Sleep inertia
  • B. REM sleep
  • C. A power nap
  • D. A microsleep
Answer: D — A microsleep
Microsleeps occur when a person is severely fatigued. During these brief lapses the person does not respond to information, which can be fatal when on watch, operating machinery or steering. They are a sign that sleep is urgently needed.

34. Which is the only effective long-term way to recover from fatigue?

  • A. Adequate, good quality sleep
  • B. Taking cold showers
  • C. Drinking strong coffee
  • D. Increasing physical exercise
Answer: A — Adequate, good quality sleep
Caffeine, fresh air or exercise may temporarily mask sleepiness but do not remove the underlying need for sleep. IMO Guidelines on Fatigue emphasise that only sufficient sleep of good quality restores alertness and repays sleep debt.

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