EFA exit exam questions and answers — Set 2 — Elementary First Aid

Set 2 of the Elementary First Aid (EFA) exit exam bank — 30 of 1185 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

Bank last rebuilt 13 Oct 2026.

Practise these EFA questions EFA mock exit exam, 30 marks EFA exit exam sets and syllabus

30 of 30 shown · Set 2

Nothing in this set matches that. Try a shorter word, or search the whole key.

Set 2 — 30 EFA exit exam questions with answers

1. An atraumatic splint could be used for which of the following injuries?

A. An ankle sprain
B. A rib fracture
C. A wrist fracture
D. A mid-shaft femur fracture

Answer: D — A mid-shaft femur fracture

An atraumatic splint, such as a Hare or Sager splint, is designed for immobilizing mid-shaft long bone fractures, particularly the femur, without causing further injury. Ankle sprains, wrist fractures, or rib fractures typically do not require this specialized type of splinting.

2. To flush an eye that has been exposed to a chemical, hold the affected eye:

A. At the same level as the unaffected eye
B. It doesn't matter
C. Lower than the unaffected eye
D. Higher than the unaffected eye

Answer: C — Lower than the unaffected eye

When flushing a chemical from the eye, holding the affected eye lower than the unaffected one allows the contaminated water to drain away from the unaffected eye. This prevents cross-contamination and ensures thorough irrigation of the exposed eye.

3. You find an adult who is unresponsive and not breathing. The scene is safe. What is your next step?

A. Activate the emergency response system
B. Check for a pulse
C. Perform CPR
D. Administer rescue breaths

Answer: A — Activate the emergency response system

Upon finding an unresponsive, non-breathing adult in a safe scene, the immediate priority is to activate the emergency response system (call for help or send someone to do so). This ensures that professional medical assistance is on its way before initiating CPR.

4. Dressings and pads are used to:

A. Help control bleeding and keep germs out
B. Provide warmth
C. All of the above
D. Immobilize injuries

Answer: A — Help control bleeding and keep germs out

Dressings and pads serve a dual purpose: to apply direct pressure to control bleeding and to provide a sterile barrier that prevents pathogens from entering the wound. While they might offer minimal warmth, their primary functions are hemostasis and infection control.

5. What method of manhandling technique would you use if a crew member is unconscious?

A. Simple forward and aft carry
B. Fireman's lift
C. Neither of the above options
D. Both the above options

Answer: D — Both the above options

When a crew member is unconscious, safe and effective extrication requires specific techniques. Both the Fireman's lift and the simple forward and aft carry are recognized methods suitable for moving an incapacitated individual, depending on the situation and rescuer's capability.

6. The treatment for fever is:

A. All of the above
B. Ibuprofen
C. Acetaminophen
D. Aspirin

Answer: C — Acetaminophen

While aspirin and ibuprofen are NSAIDs that can reduce fever, acetaminophen (paracetamol) is often the preferred first-line treatment for fever management, particularly in individuals who may have contraindications to NSAIDs. All can be effective depending on the cause and individual patient factors.

7. Hypovolemic shock results from:

A. A stroke
B. A heart attack
C. An allergic reaction
D. Decreased volume of blood

Answer: D — Decreased volume of blood

Hypovolemic shock occurs when the body loses a significant volume of blood or fluids, leading to a decrease in circulating blood volume and inadequate tissue perfusion. Other causes of shock, such as anaphylactic or cardiogenic shock, stem from different underlying mechanisms.

8. What is the average heartbeat of an adult at rest?

A. 50-60 beats per minute
B. 60-100 beats per minute
C. 120-140 beats per minute
D. 100-120 beats per minute

Answer: B — 60-100 beats per minute

A normal resting heart rate for an adult typically falls within the range of 60 to 100 beats per minute. Rates outside this range may indicate underlying medical conditions or the need for further assessment.

9. Increased respiratory difficulty accompanied by a weak, ineffective cough, wheezing, high-pitched crowing noises, and cyanosis are signs of:

A. Asthma
B. Pneumonia
C. Severe airway obstruction
D. Heart failure

Answer: C — Severe airway obstruction

The signs described—difficulty breathing, weak cough, wheezing, stridor, and cyanosis—are classic indicators of a severe airway obstruction, which impedes airflow to the lungs. While these symptoms can occur in other conditions, they most directly point to a compromised airway.

10. Which of the following should be done for a crew member experiencing a heat-related illness?

A. Give the victim plenty of fluids to drink
B. All of the above
C. Move the victim to a cool, shaded area
D. Apply cool, wet cloths to the body

Answer: B — All of the above

Managing heat-related illnesses involves a multi-faceted approach including cooling the body with wet cloths, encouraging fluid intake if conscious and able to swallow, and moving the person to a cooler environment. These actions collectively help reduce body temperature and prevent further heat injury.

11. Is it advisable to cover a tourniquet with clothes or bandages?

A. Only in an emergency
B. Yes
C. No
D. It doesn't matter

Answer: C — No

A tourniquet should never be covered with clothing or bandages, as this can obscure the site, impede assessment of its effectiveness, and potentially delay vital medical attention. The tourniquet and the wound site should remain visible for medical personnel.

12. You have a casualty who is not breathing but has injuries to the face that prevent you from performing mouth-to-mouth resuscitation. What do you do?

A. Attempt to open the victim's mouth using a jaw thrust maneuver
B. Give rescue breaths through the nose
C. Perform chest compressions only at a rate of 100-120 per minute
D. Call for immediate medical assistance

Answer: C — Perform chest compressions only at a rate of 100-120 per minute

When mouth-to-mouth resuscitation is impossible due to facial injuries, chest compressions are critical for maintaining circulation. Performing continuous chest compressions at a rate of 100-120 per minute is the recommended approach for CPR in such situations according to current guidelines.

13. What do you do after giving rescue breaths to an unconscious adult?

A. Check for a pulse
B. Administer CPR
C. Continue rescue breaths
D. Assess the victim's pupils

Answer: A — Check for a pulse

Following the administration of rescue breaths in unresponsive, non-breathing individuals, the immediate next step is to check for a pulse. This assessment determines whether chest compressions are necessary as part of CPR.

14. Can you use an adult AED on an infant?

A. No
B. Only if the infant is at least 6 months old
C. Yes
D. Only if the infant is at least 1 year old

Answer: C — Yes

AHA/ERC: use paediatric pads or attenuator if available, but if not an adult AED and pads may be used on an infant.

15. Difficulty breathing may be a sign of:

A. Anaphylaxis
B. Heart attack
C. All of the above
D. Asthma attack

Answer: C — All of the above

Difficulty breathing is a cardinal sign that can manifest in numerous critical conditions, including cardiac arrest, acute asthma exacerbations, and severe allergic reactions (anaphylaxis). Prompt recognition and intervention are essential for all these possibilities.

16. The type of shock that is caused by a severe infection is called:

A. Septic shock
B. Hypovolemic shock
C. Cardiogenic shock
D. Anaphylactic shock

Answer: A — Septic shock

Septic shock is a life-threatening condition caused by a severe infection that triggers a widespread inflammatory response, leading to dangerously low blood pressure and organ dysfunction. While other types of shock involve circulatory issues, septic shock is specifically linked to infection.

17. After discovering a possible fracture, you should assess which of the following before and after splinting?

A. All of the above
B. Level of consciousness, pupil response, and motor function
C. Blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory rate
D. Capillary refill, pulse, and sensation

Answer: D — Capillary refill, pulse, and sensation

Before and after splinting any suspected fracture, it is crucial to assess the '5 Ps': Pain, Pallor, Pulses, Paresthesia (sensation), and Paralysis. Specifically, assessing distal circulation (pulse, capillary refill) and nerve function (sensation) helps ensure the splint is not too tight and does not cause further injury.

18. If you want to be a first aider at work, you should:

A. Get certified in CPR
B. Take a first aid course
C. Arrange for your employer to put you on a first aiders course
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

Becoming a competent first aider requires formal training and certification. Taking a recognized first aid course, obtaining CPR certification, and ensuring employer support are all essential steps to be adequately prepared to provide care.

19. When is the best time to administer CPR?

A. As soon as possible after a cardiac incident
B. When the victim's breathing is shallow or labored
C. Only after the victim has been moved to a safe location
D. When the victim's heart rate is below 60 beats per minute

Answer: A — As soon as possible after a cardiac incident

Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (CPR) is most effective when initiated as soon as possible after a person's heart stops beating (cardiac arrest). Immediate chest compressions are vital to maintain blood flow to the brain and vital organs until advanced medical care can be provided.

20. Which is the first step when caring for bleeding wounds?

A. Call for medical assistance
B. Apply direct pressure with a clean or sterile dressing
C. Control bleeding by applying a tourniquet
D. Elevate the injured limb

Answer: B — Apply direct pressure with a clean or sterile dressing

The primary and immediate step in managing bleeding wounds is to apply direct pressure using a clean or sterile dressing to help control hemorrhage. Elevating the limb and applying a tourniquet are secondary measures, used if direct pressure is insufficient for severe bleeding.

21. When caring for someone who is allergic to bees and has just been stung, you should:

A. Give them an injection with their Epi-pen
B. Apply a heat pack to ease pain
C. Apply a cold pack
D. Both A and C

Answer: D — Both A and C

If a person with a known severe bee allergy is stung, assist them immediately with their prescribed epinephrine auto-injector (Epi-pen) to prevent anaphylaxis, and apply a cold pack to reduce local swelling and pain.

22. Signals of an allergic reaction to a bee sting are:

A. Feeling of tightness in the chest and throat
B. Swelling of the face, neck, and tongue
C. Rash, dizziness, or confusion
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

Signs of an allergic reaction or anaphylaxis include respiratory distress (tightness in chest/throat), angioedema (swelling of face, neck, tongue), skin hives/rashes, and neurological symptoms like dizziness or confusion.

23. When caring for a person who is suffering from heat cramps, you should:

A. Apply cold packs
B. Give cool water or sports drink
C. Have them keep walking slowly to work the cramp out
D. Massage the muscle vigorously to increase circulation

Answer: B — Give cool water or sports drink

Heat cramps are caused by the depletion of water and electrolytes from heavy sweating. First aid involves resting in a cool environment, gentle stretching, and drinking cool water or electrolyte solutions.

24. What symptoms are associated with heat exhaustion?

A. Cool, moist, pale, or flushed skin
B. Rapid weak pulse
C. Rapid, shallow breathing
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

Heat exhaustion presents with heavy sweating, cool clammy or flushed skin, dizziness, headache, nausea, a rapid and weak pulse, and fast shallow breathing.

25. Which of the following characteristics describe heat stroke?

A. Causes very high body temperature
B. Hot, red, or dry skin
C. Rapid weak pulse and shallow breathing
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

Heat stroke is a severe medical emergency characterized by a body temperature above 40°C (104°F), hot red dry or moist skin, rapid weak pulse, and confusion or loss of consciousness.

26. When caring for someone who is suffering from frostbite, you should NOT:

A. Soak affected part in warm water (100°F to 105°F)
B. Rub vigorously until skin appears red and feels warm
C. Handle the area gently
D. Avoid breaking blisters

Answer: B — Rub vigorously until skin appears red and feels warm

You must never rub frostbitten skin vigorously, as frozen ice crystals in the tissues will cause severe cellular and tissue damage.

27. Which statement regarding hypothermia is correct?

A. Is not life threatening
B. Victims must be heated up as fast as possible
C. Is caused only by exposure to temperatures below freezing
D. Can be caused by swimming in waters below 70°F (21°C)

Answer: D — Can be caused by swimming in waters below 70°F (21°C)

Hypothermia can develop in water temperatures below 70°F (21°C) because water conducts heat away from the body 25 times faster than air.

28. Snake bites can be very serious. When caring for a snake bite victim, which should you NOT do?

A. Wash the wound gently
B. Apply ice to the bitten area
C. Keep bitten part still and below the heart
D. Get professional medical care promptly

Answer: B — Apply ice to the bitten area

Never apply ice, cold packs, tourniquets, or attempt to cut or suck venom from a snake bite. Keep the victim calm and still with the bite site below heart level.

29. When performing infant CPR or rescue breathing, what kind of breaths should you give to avoid forcing air into the infant’s stomach?

A. Hard and fast
B. Smooth and fast
C. Slowly and gently
D. Long and hard

Answer: C — Slowly and gently

Deliver rescue breaths slowly and gently over 1 second, giving just enough volume to see the chest rise, to prevent gastric inflation and regurgitation.

30. Your role in making the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) system work effectively includes which four steps?

A. Elevate, Identify, decide, execute
B. Check, call, care, protect
C. Recognize, decide, call, provide
D. None of the above

Answer: C — Recognize, decide, call, provide

The four key steps in citizen emergency response are: Recognize the emergency, Decide to act, Call emergency services (EMS), and Provide first aid care until help arrives.

Printing this? Use your browser's Print (Ctrl/⌘ + P) — the buttons, the search box and the site chrome drop out and the questions run on as plain text, so a set fits a few pages. Filter to one set first if you only want that set on paper.

Practise these EFA questions as a timed paper All 1185 EFA questions and answers EFA exit exam sets and syllabus All 24 STCW exit exam courses

EFA exit exam questions and answers — Set 2 — Elementary First Aid

Set 2 — 30 EFA exit exam questions with answers · as grouped in the bank

Send this EFA answer key to your batch

More free tools for seafarers

Set 2 — 30 EFA exit exam questions with answers