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EFA exit exam questions and answers — Set 2

Set 2 of the Elementary First Aid (EFA) exit exam bank — 30 of 291 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

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Set 2 — 30 EFA exit exam questions with answers

1. Which of the following is a sign of severe airway obstruction?

  • A. High-pitched inhalation noise
  • B. Forceful cough
  • C. All of the above
  • D. Wheezing
Answer: C — All of the above
Severe airway obstruction is characterized by the inability to breathe effectively, leading to signs such as paradoxical breathing, high-pitched noises on inhalation (stridor), wheezing, and potentially cyanosis if oxygenation is compromised. A forceful cough can indicate a partial obstruction, but these other signs point to a more critical situation.

2. Infant CPR is administered to any child under the age of:

  • A. 6 months
  • B. 12 months
  • C. 24 months
  • D. 18 months
Answer: B — 12 months
Infant CPR guidelines typically define an infant as a child under one year of age, excluding newborns. This age distinction is important for applying appropriate techniques, such as two-finger chest compressions and ensuring correct airway positioning.

3. An atraumatic splint could be used for which of the following injuries?

  • A. An ankle sprain
  • B. A rib fracture
  • C. A wrist fracture
  • D. A mid-shaft femur fracture
Answer: D — A mid-shaft femur fracture
An atraumatic splint, such as a Hare or Sager splint, is designed for immobilizing mid-shaft long bone fractures, particularly the femur, without causing further injury. Ankle sprains, wrist fractures, or rib fractures typically do not require this specialized type of splinting.

4. To flush an eye that has been exposed to a chemical, hold the affected eye:

  • A. At the same level as the unaffected eye
  • B. It doesn't matter
  • C. Lower than the unaffected eye
  • D. Higher than the unaffected eye
Answer: C — Lower than the unaffected eye
When flushing a chemical from the eye, holding the affected eye lower than the unaffected one allows the contaminated water to drain away from the unaffected eye. This prevents cross-contamination and ensures thorough irrigation of the exposed eye.

5. You find an adult who is unresponsive and not breathing. The scene is safe. What is your next step?

  • A. Activate the emergency response system
  • B. Check for a pulse
  • C. Perform CPR
  • D. Administer rescue breaths
Answer: A — Activate the emergency response system
Upon finding an unresponsive, non-breathing adult in a safe scene, the immediate priority is to activate the emergency response system (call for help or send someone to do so). This ensures that professional medical assistance is on its way before initiating CPR.

6. Dressings and pads are used to:

  • A. Help control bleeding and keep germs out
  • B. Provide warmth
  • C. All of the above
  • D. Immobilize injuries
Answer: A — Help control bleeding and keep germs out
Dressings and pads serve a dual purpose: to apply direct pressure to control bleeding and to provide a sterile barrier that prevents pathogens from entering the wound. While they might offer minimal warmth, their primary functions are hemostasis and infection control.

7. What method of manhandling technique would you use if a crew member is unconscious?

  • A. Simple forward and aft carry
  • B. Fireman's lift
  • C. Neither of the above options
  • D. Both the above options
Answer: D — Both the above options
When a crew member is unconscious, safe and effective extrication requires specific techniques. Both the Fireman's lift and the simple forward and aft carry are recognized methods suitable for moving an incapacitated individual, depending on the situation and rescuer's capability.

8. The treatment for fever is:

  • A. All of the above
  • B. Ibuprofen
  • C. Acetaminophen
  • D. Aspirin
Answer: C — Acetaminophen
While aspirin and ibuprofen are NSAIDs that can reduce fever, acetaminophen (paracetamol) is often the preferred first-line treatment for fever management, particularly in individuals who may have contraindications to NSAIDs. All can be effective depending on the cause and individual patient factors.

9. Hypovolemic shock results from:

  • A. A stroke
  • B. A heart attack
  • C. An allergic reaction
  • D. Decreased volume of blood
Answer: D — Decreased volume of blood
Hypovolemic shock occurs when the body loses a significant volume of blood or fluids, leading to a decrease in circulating blood volume and inadequate tissue perfusion. Other causes of shock, such as anaphylactic or cardiogenic shock, stem from different underlying mechanisms.

10. What is the average heartbeat of an adult at rest?

  • A. 50-60 beats per minute
  • B. 60-100 beats per minute
  • C. 120-140 beats per minute
  • D. 100-120 beats per minute
Answer: B — 60-100 beats per minute
A normal resting heart rate for an adult typically falls within the range of 60 to 100 beats per minute. Rates outside this range may indicate underlying medical conditions or the need for further assessment.

11. Increased respiratory difficulty accompanied by a weak, ineffective cough, wheezing, high-pitched crowing noises, and cyanosis are signs of:

  • A. Asthma
  • B. Pneumonia
  • C. Severe airway obstruction
  • D. Heart failure
Answer: C — Severe airway obstruction
The signs described—difficulty breathing, weak cough, wheezing, stridor, and cyanosis—are classic indicators of a severe airway obstruction, which impedes airflow to the lungs. While these symptoms can occur in other conditions, they most directly point to a compromised airway.

12. Which of the following should be done for a crew member experiencing a heat-related illness?

  • A. Give the victim plenty of fluids to drink
  • B. All of the above
  • C. Move the victim to a cool, shaded area
  • D. Apply cool, wet cloths to the body
Answer: B — All of the above
Managing heat-related illnesses involves a multi-faceted approach including cooling the body with wet cloths, encouraging fluid intake if conscious and able to swallow, and moving the person to a cooler environment. These actions collectively help reduce body temperature and prevent further heat injury.

13. Is it advisable to cover a tourniquet with clothes or bandages?

  • A. Only in an emergency
  • B. Yes
  • C. No
  • D. It doesn't matter
Answer: C — No
A tourniquet should never be covered with clothing or bandages, as this can obscure the site, impede assessment of its effectiveness, and potentially delay vital medical attention. The tourniquet and the wound site should remain visible for medical personnel.

14. You have a casualty who is not breathing but has injuries to the face that prevent you from performing mouth-to-mouth resuscitation. What do you do?

  • A. Attempt to open the victim's mouth using a jaw thrust maneuver
  • B. Give rescue breaths through the nose
  • C. Perform chest compressions only at a rate of 100-120 per minute
  • D. Call for immediate medical assistance
Answer: C — Perform chest compressions only at a rate of 100-120 per minute
When mouth-to-mouth resuscitation is impossible due to facial injuries, chest compressions are critical for maintaining circulation. Performing continuous chest compressions at a rate of 100-120 per minute is the recommended approach for CPR in such situations according to current guidelines.

15. What do you do after giving rescue breaths to an unconscious adult?

  • A. Check for a pulse
  • B. Administer CPR
  • C. Continue rescue breaths
  • D. Assess the victim's pupils
Answer: A — Check for a pulse
Following the administration of rescue breaths in unresponsive, non-breathing individuals, the immediate next step is to check for a pulse. This assessment determines whether chest compressions are necessary as part of CPR.

16. Can you use an adult AED on an infant?

  • A. No
  • B. Only if the infant is at least 6 months old
  • C. Yes
  • D. Only if the infant is at least 1 year old
Answer: A — No
Adult AEDs are not recommended for use on infants under eight years old or weighing less than 55 pounds. Paediatric pads and attenuator devices are designed to deliver a lower energy shock appropriate for infants and children, minimizing the risk of cardiac damage.

17. Difficulty breathing may be a sign of:

  • A. Anaphylaxis
  • B. Heart attack
  • C. All of the above
  • D. Asthma attack
Answer: C — All of the above
Difficulty breathing is a cardinal sign that can manifest in numerous critical conditions, including cardiac arrest, acute asthma exacerbations, and severe allergic reactions (anaphylaxis). Prompt recognition and intervention are essential for all these possibilities.

18. The type of shock that is caused by a severe infection is called:

  • A. Septic shock
  • B. Hypovolemic shock
  • C. Cardiogenic shock
  • D. Anaphylactic shock
Answer: A — Septic shock
Septic shock is a life-threatening condition caused by a severe infection that triggers a widespread inflammatory response, leading to dangerously low blood pressure and organ dysfunction. While other types of shock involve circulatory issues, septic shock is specifically linked to infection.

19. After discovering a possible fracture, you should assess which of the following before and after splinting?

  • A. All of the above
  • B. Level of consciousness, pupil response, and motor function
  • C. Blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory rate
  • D. Capillary refill, pulse, and sensation
Answer: D — Capillary refill, pulse, and sensation
Before and after splinting any suspected fracture, it is crucial to assess the '5 Ps': Pain, Pallor, Pulses, Paresthesia (sensation), and Paralysis. Specifically, assessing distal circulation (pulse, capillary refill) and nerve function (sensation) helps ensure the splint is not too tight and does not cause further injury.

20. If you want to be a first aider at work, you should:

  • A. Get certified in CPR
  • B. Take a first aid course
  • C. Arrange for your employer to put you on a first aiders course
  • D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
Becoming a competent first aider requires formal training and certification. Taking a recognized first aid course, obtaining CPR certification, and ensuring employer support are all essential steps to be adequately prepared to provide care.

21. When is the best time to administer CPR?

  • A. As soon as possible after a cardiac incident
  • B. When the victim's breathing is shallow or labored
  • C. Only after the victim has been moved to a safe location
  • D. When the victim's heart rate is below 60 beats per minute
Answer: A — As soon as possible after a cardiac incident
Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (CPR) is most effective when initiated as soon as possible after a person's heart stops beating (cardiac arrest). Immediate chest compressions are vital to maintain blood flow to the brain and vital organs until advanced medical care can be provided.

22. Which is the first step when caring for bleeding wounds?

  • A. Call for medical assistance
  • B. Apply direct pressure with a clean or sterile dressing
  • C. Control bleeding by applying a tourniquet
  • D. Elevate the injured limb
Answer: B — Apply direct pressure with a clean or sterile dressing
The primary and immediate step in managing bleeding wounds is to apply direct pressure using a clean or sterile dressing to help control hemorrhage. Elevating the limb and applying a tourniquet are secondary measures, used if direct pressure is insufficient for severe bleeding.

23. Under STCW Code Table A-VI/1-1, what is the mandatory requirement regarding regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements during Elementary First Aid operations?

  • A. Optional adherence based on vessel size
  • B. Verbal recommendation without documentation
  • C. Strict compliance with approved safety procedures and flag state regulations
  • D. Applicable only during drydock operations
Answer: C — Strict compliance with approved safety procedures and flag state regulations
STCW Code Table A-VI/1-1 mandates strict compliance with approved safety protocols for Elementary First Aid.

24. What specific safety precaution must be observed when managing regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements for Elementary First Aid on board?

  • A. Disabling automated safety alarms to save time
  • B. Conducting a thorough risk assessment and briefing all involved personnel prior to starting work
  • C. Delegating tasks exclusively to untrained crew members
  • D. Proceeding without informing the officer on watch
Answer: B — Conducting a thorough risk assessment and briefing all involved personnel prior to starting work
Risk assessments and pre-job briefings ensure all team members understand hazards during Elementary First Aid operations.

25. Which international regulation specifies the minimum standard for regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements concerning Elementary First Aid?

  • A. STCW Code Section A-VI/1-1 and relevant SOLAS/MARPOL conventions
  • B. International Load Line Certificate Annex 3
  • C. Tonnage Measurement Convention 1969
  • D. Port State Control advisory note only
Answer: A — STCW Code Section A-VI/1-1 and relevant SOLAS/MARPOL conventions
STCW Code Section A-VI/1-1 sets international standards for training and operational competency in Elementary First Aid.

26. In the event of an emergency involving regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements during Elementary First Aid tasks, what immediate action is required?

  • A. Raise the alarm, notify the Officer of the Watch, and execute assigned muster list duties
  • B. Attempt to resolve the incident silently without raising the alarm
  • C. Evacuate the vessel immediately without informing the bridge
  • D. Wait until the end of the watch to log the issue
Answer: A — Raise the alarm, notify the Officer of the Watch, and execute assigned muster list duties
Prompt alarm activation ensures emergency response teams can mobilize immediately.

27. How frequently must operational drills and practical checks for regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements be conducted for Elementary First Aid?

  • A. Once every 5 years during special survey
  • B. At least monthly or as mandated by SOLAS and shipboard safety management system (SMS)
  • C. Only when requested by port State control inspectors
  • D. Annually prior to vessel drydocking
Answer: B — At least monthly or as mandated by SOLAS and shipboard safety management system (SMS)
Regular drills maintain crew emergency readiness and satisfy SOLAS requirements.

28. What documented record must be maintained on board following completion of tasks related to regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements in Elementary First Aid?

  • A. Entry in the official Deck or Engine Logbook recording date, time, and operational parameters
  • B. Verbal update to port agent without logging
  • C. No written record is required
  • D. Unsigned note on the shipboard notice board
Answer: A — Entry in the official Deck or Engine Logbook recording date, time, and operational parameters
Official logbook entries provide mandatory legal documentation of shipboard safety tasks.

29. What type of personal protective equipment (PPE) is essential when handling regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements under Elementary First Aid guidelines?

  • A. Certified task-specific PPE meeting SOLAS/IMO performance standards
  • B. Basic cotton coveralls without eye or foot protection
  • C. Standard street clothing with rubber gloves
  • D. High-visibility vest only
Answer: A — Certified task-specific PPE meeting SOLAS/IMO performance standards
Approved PPE protects personnel against specific physical and chemical hazards.

30. What parameter must be verified prior to authorizing enclosed space entry for regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements related to Elementary First Aid?

  • A. Oxygen level at 15% with ventilation turned off
  • B. Visual inspection through access hatch without gas testing
  • C. Temperature check only
  • D. Atmospheric oxygen level at 20.9% and zero toxic/flammable gas concentration
Answer: D — Atmospheric oxygen level at 20.9% and zero toxic/flammable gas concentration
Enclosed space safety requires verified atmospheric gas testing prior to entry.

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