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EFA exit exam questions and answers — Set 23 — Elementary First Aid

Set 23 of the Elementary First Aid (EFA) exit exam bank — 30 of 1185 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

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Set 23 — 30 EFA exit exam questions with answers

1. If someone faints, the first thing you should do is ____.

  • A. Place cool water on their face
  • B. Have them lie on their stomach
  • C. Raise their feet
  • D. Give them something to drink
Answer: C — Raise their feet
Fainting is caused by a temporary reduction of blood flow to the brain. Laying the person down and raising the legs helps blood return to the brain, and recovery is usually quick.

2. To assess whether a person has had a stroke, ask them to ____.

  • A. Blow a kiss
  • B. Smile
  • C. Stand up
  • D. Say their name
Answer: B — Smile
The FAST check (Face, Arms, Speech, Time) begins by asking the person to smile. A drooping face on one side is a typical stroke sign, requiring urgent medical help.

3. If a known diabetic has missed lunch and appears confused and vague, what should you do immediately?

  • A. Give them a sandwich to eat
  • B. Encourage them to take their insulin
  • C. Call an ambulance
  • D. Give them a sugary drink
Answer: D — Give them a sugary drink
Confusion in a diabetic who has missed a meal suggests hypoglycaemia (low blood sugar). A sugary drink raises blood sugar rapidly; giving insulin would lower it further and could be fatal.

4. On an infant, if you are the lone rescuer, you should perform chest compressions ____.

  • A. Using two fingers just below the nipple line
  • B. Using the heel of one hand just below the nipple line
  • C. Using the heels of two hands just below the nipple line
  • D. None of the above
Answer: A — Using two fingers just below the nipple line
For an infant a lone rescuer uses two fingers on the centre of the breastbone just below the nipple line, compressing about one third of the chest depth. The hand techniques are for children and adults.

5. Cancer of the cervix in women can be detected by regular ____.

  • A. VAT test
  • B. ELISA test
  • C. Pap smears
  • D. Mantoux test
Answer: C — Pap smears
A Pap smear collects cells from the cervix to detect abnormal or cancerous changes early. ELISA is a blood test used to screen for HIV antibodies and the Mantoux test is for tuberculosis.

6. Taking two or more antiretroviral drugs at a time is called ____.

  • A. Clinical latency
  • B. Combination therapy
  • C. Combative therapy
  • D. Monotherapy
Answer: B — Combination therapy
HIV treatment uses a combination of antiretroviral drugs taken together, called combination therapy. Using several drugs that act differently suppresses the virus more effectively and reduces the chance of drug resistance.

7. HIV can only replicate itself inside ____.

  • A. The bloodstream
  • B. The human cell
  • C. Saliva
  • D. Urine
Answer: B — The human cell
Like all viruses, HIV cannot reproduce on its own. It enters human cells, mainly CD4 immune cells, and uses their machinery to make copies of itself, destroying the cells in the process.

8. AIDS is caused by ____.

  • A. HPV
  • B. Airborne particles
  • C. HIV
  • D. Bacteria in contaminated food
Answer: C — HIV
AIDS is the advanced stage of infection with the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV), which progressively destroys the immune system. HPV is a different virus linked to cervical cancer.

9. At the beginning of HIV therapy, the first combination of drugs is called ____.

  • A. Front line therapy
  • B. Third line therapy
  • C. First line therapy
  • D. Salvage therapy
Answer: C — First line therapy
The initial antiretroviral regimen given to a patient is first line therapy. If it fails or causes resistance, second and third line regimens are used.

10. What is the most common AIDS-related infection?

  • A. Pink eye
  • B. Sinusitis
  • C. Tuberculosis
  • D. Common cold
Answer: C — Tuberculosis
Tuberculosis is the most common opportunistic infection and a leading cause of death among people with HIV/AIDS, especially in countries such as India, because the weakened immune system cannot contain the TB bacteria.

11. AIDS stands for ____.

  • A. Auto Immune Deficiency Syndrome
  • B. Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome
  • C. Amniotic Immune Deficiency Syndrome
  • D. Acute Immune Deficiency Syndrome
Answer: B — Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome
AIDS stands for Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome. It is acquired through infection with HIV rather than inherited, and results in severe weakening of the immune system.

12. What does the standard HIV test identify?

  • A. RNA strands
  • B. T-cell count
  • C. Antibodies
  • D. Red blood cell count
Answer: C — Antibodies
Standard HIV screening tests such as ELISA detect antibodies produced by the body against HIV. A positive screening result is confirmed with further tests.

13. Which of the following is NOT an available treatment for HIV/AIDS?

  • A. Antiretroviral drug treatment
  • B. Vaccine treatment
  • C. Combination therapy
  • D. Treatment of opportunistic infections
Answer: B — Vaccine treatment
HIV/AIDS is managed with antiretroviral drugs, usually in combination, and treatment of opportunistic infections. There is currently no vaccine that prevents or cures HIV.

14. What is the difference between HIV and AIDS?

  • A. HIV is a virus and AIDS is a bacterial disease
  • B. There is no difference between HIV and AIDS
  • C. HIV is the virus that causes AIDS
  • D. AIDS is the virus and HIV is the disease it causes
Answer: C — HIV is the virus that causes AIDS
HIV is the Human Immunodeficiency Virus. AIDS is the late stage of HIV infection when the immune system is severely damaged and opportunistic infections occur.

15. HIV is most likely to become resistant to drugs when ____.

  • A. Only one drug is taken
  • B. Two drugs are taken together
  • C. More than two drugs are taken together
  • D. Drugs are taken exactly as prescribed
Answer: A — Only one drug is taken
With a single drug the virus can quickly mutate and escape its effect. Combinations of three or more antiretrovirals, taken regularly, suppress replication strongly enough to prevent resistance developing.

16. What does respiratory arrest mean?

  • A. A person can breathe on their own
  • B. A person is struggling to breathe
  • C. A person has stopped breathing
  • D. A person's heart has stopped beating
Answer: C — A person has stopped breathing
Respiratory arrest means breathing has stopped. If not treated with rescue breaths the heart soon stops from lack of oxygen, which is cardiac arrest.

17. Who needs rescue breathing?

  • A. A person in respiratory arrest
  • B. A normal person
  • C. A diabetic patient
  • D. A person with a minor cut
Answer: A — A person in respiratory arrest
Rescue breathing supplies oxygen to a casualty who has stopped breathing (respiratory arrest). If there are no signs of circulation, full CPR with chest compressions is needed.

18. What is an essential part of life support for people with respiratory arrest?

  • A. Providing breaths
  • B. Recirculating the blood in their body
  • C. Defibrillation
  • D. Giving oral fluids
Answer: A — Providing breaths
In respiratory arrest the casualty is not breathing, so the essential action is to provide rescue breaths to supply oxygen. Chest compressions and defibrillation are needed only when the heart has also stopped.

19. When treating a hypothermia casualty, which of the following should be done first?

  • A. Removing wet clothing
  • B. Wrapping the victim in a warm blanket
  • C. Placing heat packs on the victim's pulse points
  • D. Giving the victim an alcoholic drink
Answer: A — Removing wet clothing
Wet clothing keeps drawing heat from the body, so after moving the casualty to shelter it is removed (or covered if removal is impractical) before wrapping in dry blankets. Alcohol is never given as it increases heat loss.

20. Incorrect rewarming of a hypothermia victim may result in a condition known as ____.

  • A. The bends
  • B. After drop
  • C. Restored circulation
  • D. Heat stroke
Answer: B — After drop
After drop is a further fall in core temperature when cold blood from the limbs returns to the core, for example if the limbs are rubbed or warmed first. It can cause heart rhythm problems and collapse.

21. Which of the following makes a person more prone to hypothermia?

  • A. Being slim and weak, with little body fat to insulate against cold
  • B. Not eating enough at the last meal
  • C. Wearing too many layers of clothing
  • D. Being heavily built and well fed
Answer: A — Being slim and weak, with little body fat to insulate against cold
Body fat insulates against heat loss, so slim and weak persons cool faster in cold water or air. Extra layers of clothing trap warm air and help protect against hypothermia.

22. How will you give rescue breaths to an adult casualty?

  • A. Mouth-to-mouth-and-nose respiration
  • B. Mouth-to-nose respiration
  • C. Mouth-to-mouth respiration
  • D. Chest compressions only, without breaths
Answer: C — Mouth-to-mouth respiration
For an adult the standard method is mouth-to-mouth, pinching the nose closed and sealing the lips around the casualty's mouth. Mouth-to-mouth-and-nose is used for infants, and mouth-to-nose when the mouth cannot be used.

23. What action should be taken for a patient suffering from heat exhaustion?

  • A. Move to a cool room and lie down
  • B. Keep standing and walk slowly and continuously
  • C. Give a glass of water and return to work after 15 minutes of rest
  • D. Give hot drinks and cover with blankets
Answer: A — Move to a cool room and lie down
The casualty with heat exhaustion is moved to a cool, shaded place, laid down with legs raised and given fluids. Rest must continue until fully recovered; returning to work quickly risks progression to heat stroke.

24. Treatment of sunstroke consists principally of ____.

  • A. Cooling, removing to a shaded area, and lying down
  • B. Bathing with rubbing alcohol
  • C. Drinking ice water
  • D. Giving hot drinks
Answer: A — Cooling, removing to a shaded area, and lying down
Sunstroke (heat stroke) is a dangerous rise in body temperature, so the priority is rapid cooling: move the casualty into shade, lay them down, remove clothing and cool with water and fanning while seeking medical advice.

25. First aid treatment for battery acid or alkali burns is especially ____.

  • A. Flushing with large amounts of fresh water and seeking medical attention ashore or by radio
  • B. Wiping the affected area with a clean dry cloth and resting quietly for several hours
  • C. Drying the acid or alkali with a rag and applying a light cream
  • D. Applying grease or butter to the burn
Answer: A — Flushing with large amounts of fresh water and seeking medical attention ashore or by radio
Chemical burns must be flushed immediately with plenty of clean water for at least 20 minutes to dilute and remove the chemical. Medical advice is then obtained, ashore or by radio medical service.

26. What is the most severe type of burn?

  • A. First degree burn
  • B. Second degree burn
  • C. Third degree burn
  • D. Superficial scald
Answer: C — Third degree burn
A third degree (full thickness) burn destroys all layers of skin and may damage underlying tissue and nerves. It carries the greatest risk of shock and infection and always needs medical treatment.

27. A person suffering from hypoglycaemia (low blood sugar) can be quickly treated by ____.

  • A. Making the person rest
  • B. Making the person drink water
  • C. Providing food with a high sugar content, such as chocolate or plain sugar
  • D. Giving the person an insulin injection
Answer: C — Providing food with a high sugar content, such as chocolate or plain sugar
Hypoglycaemia is corrected by giving quick sugar such as glucose, sweets, a sugary drink or chocolate to a conscious casualty. Insulin lowers blood sugar further and would make the condition worse.

28. What type of breath should be given when performing rescue breathing?

  • A. A normal breath over about 1 second, just enough to make the chest rise
  • B. A very deep, forceful breath
  • C. A rapid series of short puffs
  • D. A slow breath lasting about 5 seconds
Answer: A — A normal breath over about 1 second, just enough to make the chest rise
Current resuscitation guidelines call for each rescue breath to be a normal breath given over about one second, just enough to make the chest visibly rise. Forceful breaths inflate the stomach and cause vomiting.

29. What does asphyxia mean?

  • A. A condition in which the body is deprived of oxygen because breathing is impaired
  • B. A state of unconsciousness caused by a blow to the head
  • C. An abnormally high body temperature
  • D. A sudden loss of blood from a major artery
Answer: A — A condition in which the body is deprived of oxygen because breathing is impaired
Asphyxia is a lack of oxygen in the body caused by interference with breathing, for example choking, drowning, strangulation or toxic gases. Unconsciousness may follow, but it is a result of asphyxia, not its definition.

30. What causes a myocardial infarction (heart attack)?

  • A. Blockage of a coronary artery, cutting off blood supply to part of the heart muscle
  • B. Cramp in the muscles of the chest wall
  • C. Excessive blood flow to the heart muscle
  • D. Inflammation of the lungs
Answer: A — Blockage of a coronary artery, cutting off blood supply to part of the heart muscle
A myocardial infarction occurs when a coronary artery is blocked, usually by a blood clot on a narrowed vessel, so that part of the heart muscle is starved of oxygen and dies.

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