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DG Exit Exam
Answer Key

EFA exit exam questions and answers — Set 26 — Elementary First Aid

Set 26 of the Elementary First Aid (EFA) exit exam bank — 30 of 1185 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

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Set 26 — 30 EFA exit exam questions with answers

1. What is the position of a patient during treatment for shock?

  • A. Lying flat (horizontal), with the legs raised if injuries permit
  • B. Sitting upright
  • C. Standing and walking about
  • D. Lying face down with the head raised
Answer: A — Lying flat (horizontal), with the legs raised if injuries permit
A shocked casualty is laid down flat and, if no injury prevents it, the legs are raised to help return blood to the vital organs. Keep the casualty warm and get medical help.

2. What names are given to the three different depths of burns?

  • A. Superficial, partial thickness and full thickness
  • B. Small, medium and large
  • C. Minor, major and critical
  • D. Red, white and black
Answer: A — Superficial, partial thickness and full thickness
Burns are classified by depth as superficial (first degree), partial thickness (second degree) and full thickness (third degree), which destroys all skin layers and needs hospital treatment.

3. Cardiac arrest refers to:

  • A. Sudden stoppage of the heart's pumping action
  • B. Pain in the chest during exercise
  • C. A rapid but regular heartbeat
  • D. High blood pressure
Answer: A — Sudden stoppage of the heart's pumping action
In cardiac arrest the heart stops pumping effectively, so there is no circulation, no pulse and no normal breathing. Immediate CPR and defibrillation are needed to give any chance of survival.

4. A first aid responder should move a victim when:

  • A. There is immediate danger to the victim or rescuer at the scene
  • B. It would make it easier to administer first aid
  • C. The victim asks for a drink
  • D. Bystanders are watching
Answer: A — There is immediate danger to the victim or rescuer at the scene
Casualties should not be moved unless they are in immediate danger such as fire, toxic gas or explosion risk, because movement can worsen injuries, especially spinal injuries. Otherwise treat them where found.

5. If a victim is unresponsive and not breathing normally, what is the first thing you should do?

  • A. Call for emergency help and a defibrillator, then start CPR
  • B. Give the victim a drink of water
  • C. Place the victim in the recovery position and leave
  • D. Wait to see if breathing returns
Answer: A — Call for emergency help and a defibrillator, then start CPR
Abnormal or absent breathing in an unresponsive casualty indicates cardiac arrest. Raise the alarm, send for an AED and begin CPR at once with 30 compressions to 2 breaths.

6. A first aid box should NOT contain:

  • A. Aspirin or painkillers
  • B. Sterile dressings
  • C. Triangular bandages
  • D. Disposable gloves
Answer: A — Aspirin or painkillers
Workplace first aid kits should contain dressings, bandages, gloves and similar items, but not medicines such as aspirin or painkillers, because first aiders are not trained to administer drugs.

7. Which medicine is commonly used to treat fever?

  • A. Paracetamol
  • B. Antacid
  • C. Antihistamine eye drops
  • D. Laxative
Answer: A — Paracetamol
Paracetamol is an antipyretic and painkiller that lowers body temperature, and is the standard medicine for fever in the ship's medicine chest, together with rest, fluids and cooling.

8. Compound fractures with severe bleeding in large bones may lead to ____.

  • A. Shock
  • B. Diabetes
  • C. Asthma
  • D. Epilepsy
Answer: A — Shock
Fractures of large bones such as the femur or pelvis can lose a large volume of blood, externally and internally, reducing circulating volume and causing hypovolaemic shock.

9. Which one of the following is the best way to assess dehydration in the elderly?

  • A. Check the mucous membranes of the eyes and mouth
  • B. Check skin turgor on the back of the hand
  • C. Check the hair for dryness
  • D. Count the pulse at the wrist only
Answer: A — Check the mucous membranes of the eyes and mouth
Elderly skin loses elasticity, so skin turgor is unreliable. Dry mucous membranes of the mouth and eyes are a better indicator of dehydration in older people.

10. When prioritising the treatment of casualties, which order must you follow?

  • A. Breathing - Bleeding - Bones/Burns - Other conditions
  • B. Bones - Burns - Bleeding - Breathing
  • C. Bleeding - Bones - Breathing - Burns
  • D. Burns - Breathing - Bones - Bleeding
Answer: A — Breathing - Bleeding - Bones/Burns - Other conditions
Casualties with airway or breathing problems die quickest, so breathing comes first, then severe bleeding, then fractures and burns, then other conditions. This ensures the most life-threatening conditions are treated first.

11. What is the best position for a conscious casualty suffering from internal bleeding?

  • A. Lying down with the legs raised
  • B. Sitting upright
  • C. Standing up
  • D. Lying face down
Answer: A — Lying down with the legs raised
Internal bleeding leads to shock. Laying the casualty down with legs raised helps maintain blood flow to the vital organs while urgent medical help is obtained.

12. The patient should be treated for shock if:

  • A. The pulse is weak and rapid
  • B. The pulse is strong and slow
  • C. The skin is warm and pink
  • D. Breathing is slow and deep
Answer: A — The pulse is weak and rapid
A weak, rapid pulse shows the heart is compensating for reduced circulating volume, a key sign of shock, along with pale clammy skin and rapid shallow breathing.

13. A person has been coughing forcefully for over a minute after something went down the wrong way. What should you do?

  • A. Encourage them to keep coughing and get medical attention if it does not clear
  • B. Give abdominal thrusts immediately
  • C. Slap them hard on the back while they are coughing
  • D. Give them food to swallow
Answer: A — Encourage them to keep coughing and get medical attention if it does not clear
Effective coughing shows a mild airway obstruction; encourage the casualty to cough, which is the best way to clear it. Back blows and thrusts are used only when coughing becomes ineffective.

14. A conscious person refuses your help and then lapses into unconsciousness. What should you do?

  • A. Give first aid, as consent is implied when the victim is unconscious
  • B. Leave them, since they refused help
  • C. Wait until they regain consciousness to ask again
  • D. Get written permission from a bystander first
Answer: A — Give first aid, as consent is implied when the victim is unconscious
An unconscious person cannot refuse care, so the law presumes implied consent to life-saving first aid. Begin assessment and treatment and call for medical help.

15. A person has a tooth knocked out and has found the tooth. What is the best action to take?

  • A. Place the tooth in a closed container of cold milk until reaching the dentist
  • B. Scrub the tooth clean and wrap it in tissue
  • C. Throw the tooth away as it cannot be saved
  • D. Let the tooth dry out in the sun
Answer: A — Place the tooth in a closed container of cold milk until reaching the dentist
A knocked-out tooth should be held by the crown, not the root, and kept moist in milk or saliva to keep the root cells alive. Prompt dental treatment gives the best chance of reimplantation.

16. A casualty is not breathing but has a pulse. What would be the best course of action?

  • A. Call for help and begin rescue breathing
  • B. Begin chest compressions only
  • C. Place the casualty in the recovery position and leave
  • D. Give the casualty water
Answer: A — Call for help and begin rescue breathing
With a pulse present the heart is working, so the casualty needs rescue breathing to supply oxygen. Call for help and reassess the pulse regularly, starting CPR if it disappears.

17. Where would you check the pulse on a 12-year-old boy?

  • A. At the side of the neck (carotid pulse)
  • B. On the inside of the upper arm (brachial pulse)
  • C. At the ankle
  • D. On the forehead
Answer: A — At the side of the neck (carotid pulse)
For children over one year and adults, the carotid pulse at the side of the neck is checked. The brachial pulse on the inner upper arm is used for infants.

18. A person has been impaled by an object such as an arrow through the chest. What would be the best course of action?

  • A. Do not remove the object; pad dressings around it to stop it moving and bandage them in place
  • B. Pull the object out quickly and apply pressure
  • C. Push the object right through the body
  • D. Cut the object flush with the skin before bandaging
Answer: A — Do not remove the object; pad dressings around it to stop it moving and bandage them in place
An impaled object may be plugging the wound; removing it can cause severe bleeding and further damage. Stabilise it with bulky dressings around it, bandage in place and get urgent medical help.

19. A casualty has a splinter (sliver) embedded in the eye. You should:

  • A. Leave it in place, cover the eye and get medical help
  • B. Pull it out with tweezers
  • C. Rub the eye to remove it
  • D. Press firmly on the eye to stop bleeding
Answer: A — Leave it in place, cover the eye and get medical help
An object embedded in the eye must not be removed by a first aider because further damage may result. Cover the eye lightly without pressure, ask the casualty to keep still and seek medical help.

20. An industrial worker sustains a severe laceration to the forearm. If direct pressure fails, the correct arterial pressure point to control the bleeding is the:

  • A. Brachial artery
  • B. Carotid artery
  • C. Femoral artery
  • D. Temporal artery
Answer: A — Brachial artery
Bleeding from the forearm and hand is controlled at the brachial pressure point on the inner side of the upper arm. The carotid is in the neck and must never be compressed to stop limb bleeding.

21. Your primary survey of a casualty in a serious car collision shows only that he is confused. Later his pulse is 140 and weak, his skin cold and clammy and his breathing irregular and gasping. These signs, with the mechanism of injury, indicate:

  • A. Internal bleeding
  • B. Hypoglycaemia
  • C. Heat exhaustion
  • D. A simple faint
Answer: A — Internal bleeding
After a high-energy impact, a rising weak pulse, cold clammy skin and changing breathing with no visible blood loss indicate shock from internal bleeding, requiring urgent evacuation to hospital.

22. For which one of the following infectious diseases is a vaccine presently available?

  • A. Hepatitis B
  • B. HIV/AIDS
  • C. Herpes simplex
  • D. Hepatitis C
Answer: A — Hepatitis B
An effective vaccine against hepatitis B is widely available and recommended for first aiders and healthcare workers. There is no licensed vaccine for HIV, herpes simplex or hepatitis C.

23. Based on current research, which of the following statements about the AIDS virus (HIV) is correct?

  • A. It can be found in blood and semen
  • B. It is spread by casual contact such as shaking hands
  • C. It is spread through sharing drinking cups
  • D. It can live indefinitely outside the body
Answer: A — It can be found in blood and semen
HIV is carried in blood, semen, vaginal fluids and breast milk and is spread by sexual contact, shared needles and blood exposure. It is not transmitted by casual contact, and gloves protect first aiders.

24. In a hazardous materials (hazmat) situation, airway management and spinal immobilisation are carried out in the:

  • A. Warm zone
  • B. Hot zone
  • C. Cold zone
  • D. Outside the incident area only
Answer: A — Warm zone
In the warm (decontamination) zone, trained responders in protective equipment carry out life-saving airway management and spinal immobilisation while decontaminating casualties brought out of the hot zone.

25. During the primary assessment of a responsive adult patient, you detect a breathing rate of 28 breaths per minute. You would categorise this as:

  • A. Above normal
  • B. Normal
  • C. Below normal
  • D. Respiratory arrest
Answer: A — Above normal
Normal adult breathing at rest is about 12-20 breaths per minute, so 28 breaths per minute is above normal and may indicate shock, pain, anxiety or respiratory problems.

26. Immediately before a seizure, the patient experiences an unpleasant odour. This phase is referred to as the:

  • A. Aura
  • B. Tonic phase
  • C. Clonic phase
  • D. Postictal phase
Answer: A — Aura
An aura is a warning sensation, such as a strange smell, taste or visual disturbance, that some patients experience just before a seizure begins. The tonic and clonic phases follow, then the postictal recovery phase.

27. You are called to a casualty having an asthma attack. Treatment may include all of the following EXCEPT:

  • A. Helping the casualty use their prescribed reliever inhaler
  • B. Sitting the casualty upright, leaning slightly forward
  • C. Calm reassurance and encouraging slow breathing
  • D. Giving nitroglycerin
Answer: D — Giving nitroglycerin
Asthma first aid consists of reassurance, a comfortable upright position and the casualty's own reliever (bronchodilator) inhaler. Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator used for angina chest pain and has no place in treating an asthma attack.

28. Responders involved in wound management should consider that:

  • A. All open wounds are contaminated to some degree
  • B. Only deep wounds can become infected
  • C. Gloves are not needed when treating small wounds
  • D. Clean-looking wounds never need a dressing
Answer: A — All open wounds are contaminated to some degree
Any break in the skin allows dirt and micro-organisms to enter, so every open wound must be treated as contaminated. The first aider wears gloves, cleans the wound and covers it with a sterile dressing to reduce the risk of infection.

29. Which action is part of first aid for a nosebleed?

  • A. Lean forward and firmly pinch the soft part of the nose
  • B. Tilt the head well back and pinch the bridge of the nose
  • C. Lie the casualty flat on their back
  • D. Pack the nostrils tightly with cotton wool
Answer: A — Lean forward and firmly pinch the soft part of the nose
Leaning forward lets blood drain out of the mouth and nose instead of being swallowed, and firm pressure on the soft part of the nose for about 10 minutes compresses the bleeding vessels. Tilting the head back causes blood to run into the throat and stomach.

30. If it becomes necessary to thaw a hand with deep frostbite, you should ensure that:

  • A. There is no danger of refreezing
  • B. The hand is rubbed vigorously with snow
  • C. The hand is held close to an open fire
  • D. The casualty first walks to warm up
Answer: A — There is no danger of refreezing
Thawing followed by refreezing causes far more tissue damage than leaving the part frozen, so rewarming should only begin when the casualty can be kept warm. Rewarming is done gently in warm (not hot) water; rubbing or direct heat damages the tissue further.

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