EFA exit exam questions and answers — Set 30 — Elementary First Aid
Set 30 of the Elementary First Aid (EFA) exit exam bank — 30 of 1185 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.
These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.
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Set 30 — 30 EFA exit exam questions with answers
1. Which of the following signs is most consistent with a stroke?
- A. Sudden confusion with facial drooping or one-sided weakness
- B. High fever with shivering
- C. Itching rash over the whole body
- D. Pain in the lower abdomen after meals
2. A 20-year-old dives off the end of a dock. On reaching the surface of the water, he does not appear to be moving. What is the likely cause?
- A. Head or spinal (neck) injury
- B. Heart attack
- C. Heat stroke
- D. Food poisoning
3. You are performing single-rescuer CPR. The AED advises a shock. After the shock is delivered, what is the next immediate step?
- A. Resume CPR starting with chest compressions
- B. Check the pulse for one minute
- C. Deliver a second shock immediately
- D. Give two rescue breaths and wait
4. When a lone rescuer must leave an unresponsive casualty to activate EMS, what is the main difference in care between an adult and a child?
- A. For a child give about two minutes of CPR first, then go for help; for an adult call for help immediately
- B. For an adult give two minutes of CPR first; for a child call immediately
- C. There is no difference
- D. Children should be given rescue breaths only and left in the recovery position
5. You are relieving choking in an infant and the infant becomes unresponsive. What is the next step?
- A. Shout for help and begin CPR, starting with chest compressions
- B. Leave the infant to get help
- C. Continue back blows only
- D. Give the infant water to drink
6. Which of the following signs may occur in a casualty with heat exhaustion?
- A. Heavy sweating, headache, nausea and dizziness
- B. Shivering and goose bumps
- C. Slow pulse and raised blood pressure
- D. Bluish lips caused by cold
7. Which of the following increases the risk of hypothermia?
- A. Old age
- B. Wearing dry woollen clothing
- C. Being well fed
- D. Sheltering out of the wind
8. Which of the following should the first aider do when helping a casualty with a snakebite?
- A. If the snake is still nearby, back away and approach from another direction
- B. Cut the wound and suck out the venom
- C. Apply ice directly to the bite
- D. Make the casualty walk briskly to the nearest help
9. Which of the following is true of moving an injured casualty?
- A. Move the casualty only if there is immediate danger or it is needed to give essential care
- B. Always move the casualty to a bed before giving first aid
- C. Never move an injured person under any circumstances
- D. Move the casualty quickly by the arms and legs to save time
10. When treating a casualty with frostbite, which of the following is true?
- A. Do not thaw the part if there is a chance it may refreeze
- B. Rub the affected area briskly with snow
- C. Warm the part quickly in front of a fire
- D. Break any blisters that form
11. Which of the following is true when treating an eye injury?
- A. Do not remove an object embedded in the eye
- B. Rub the eye to remove any particle
- C. Apply firm pressure on the eyeball to stop bleeding
- D. Rinse a chemical splash for only a few seconds
12. What should a first aider do if a casualty has a mild airway obstruction and can still cough?
- A. Encourage the casualty to keep coughing
- B. Give abdominal thrusts immediately
- C. Give five back blows straight away
- D. Perform a blind finger sweep
13. The CAB sequence of CPR stands for
- A. Compressions, Airway, Breathing
- B. Circulation, Alertness, Bleeding
- C. Consciousness, Airway, Bandaging
- D. Cardiac massage, Assessment, Breathing
14. A cadet on board has been hit in the mouth and a tooth has been knocked out. You should
- A. Control the bleeding by having him bite on a rolled sterile dressing placed in the tooth socket
- B. Pack the socket with cotton wool soaked in alcohol
- C. Give hot drinks to reduce the pain
- D. Leave the socket open and allow it to bleed freely
15. While giving mouth-to-mouth respiration, adequate ventilation is indicated when the casualty's chest
- A. Rises and falls with each breath
- B. Remains still
- C. Only the abdomen swells
- D. Sinks inwards during the breath
16. If there is no air exchange and an airway obstruction exists, you should
- A. Remove the obstruction from the casualty's mouth and start artificial respiration
- B. Continue artificial respiration without clearing the airway
- C. Give the casualty water to drink
- D. Place the casualty in a sitting position and wait
17. It is correct to give mouth-to-nose respiration to a casualty when
- A. A tight seal around the lips cannot be obtained
- B. The casualty is breathing normally
- C. The casualty has a blocked nose
- D. The casualty is conscious and talking
18. In the Silvester method of artificial respiration, the casualty's arms should be moved approximately
- A. 12 times per minute
- B. 4 times per minute
- C. 30 times per minute
- D. 60 times per minute
19. Artificial respiration brings oxygen-containing air to the
- A. Lungs of the casualty
- B. Stomach of the casualty
- C. Heart directly
- D. Brain directly
20. Oxygen is transported to the brain and other organs by ____
- A. Circulating blood
- B. The lymphatic system
- C. The nervous system
- D. The digestive system
21. Why should the initial dressing on a bleeding wound not be removed?
- A. Removing it will disturb the clotting process
- B. It is too expensive to replace
- C. It prevents the casualty from feeling pain
- D. The wound must be kept dry for X-ray
22. How does elevation of an injured limb help to decrease blood loss?
- A. Gravity reduces the blood flow and pressure at the wound
- B. It increases the heart rate
- C. It speeds up the casualty's breathing
- D. It cools the wound
23. Which artery is compressed to stop bleeding in the upper arm?
- A. Brachial artery
- B. Femoral artery
- C. Carotid artery
- D. Radial artery
24. The main cause of shock is
- A. Inadequate blood circulation and oxygen supply to the tissues
- B. Excessive body temperature
- C. A broken bone without bleeding
- D. Low blood sugar alone
25. What is the usual pulse rate of a casualty in shock?
- A. Rapid and weak, higher than 100 per minute
- B. Slow and strong, below 50 per minute
- C. Normal, about 72 per minute
- D. No pulse can ever be felt
26. When giving rescue breaths to an infant, you should
- A. Give small, gentle breaths just enough to make the chest rise
- B. Blow as hard as possible into the mouth
- C. Give breaths through the nose only, with the mouth held closed
- D. Give one long breath lasting five seconds
27. Child CPR guidelines are applied to casualties aged
- A. From 1 year of age to puberty
- B. Under 1 year only
- C. Over 18 years only
- D. Up to 6 months only
28. In case of an emergency, you SHOULD NOT
- A. Leave the casualty unattended
- B. Call for help
- C. Check the scene for danger
- D. Reassure the casualty
29. The entire nervous system is divided into two main parts: the ____
- A. Central nervous system and peripheral nervous system
- B. Cerebrum and cerebellum
- C. Spinal cord and spinal nerves only
- D. Sympathetic and somatic systems
30. When checking for a pulse in an infant, you should locate the
- A. Brachial artery
- B. Carotid artery
- C. Femoral artery in the groin only
- D. Radial artery at the wrist
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