EFA exit exam questions and answers — Set 32 — Elementary First Aid

Set 32 of the Elementary First Aid (EFA) exit exam bank — 30 of 1185 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

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Set 32 — 30 EFA exit exam questions with answers

1. Where is the chest compression landmark on an adult?

A. Centre of the chest, on the lower half of the breastbone
B. Upper abdomen just below the ribs
C. Left side of the chest over the nipple
D. Top of the breastbone near the neck

Answer: A — Centre of the chest, on the lower half of the breastbone

For adult CPR the heel of the hand is placed in the centre of the chest on the lower half of the sternum. Pressing on the abdomen or the tip of the breastbone can injure internal organs and is ineffective.

2. How should chest compressions be performed on an infant?

A. With two fingers on the centre of the chest just below the nipple line
B. With the heel of one hand on the upper abdomen
C. With both hands interlocked, as for an adult
D. With a clenched fist on the left side of the chest

Answer: A — With two fingers on the centre of the chest just below the nipple line

An infant's chest is small and fragile, so a single rescuer compresses with two fingers on the breastbone just below the nipple line to about one third of chest depth (about 4 cm).

3. Why should you use gloves and a mouth barrier device when delivering CPR?

A. To protect both rescuer and casualty from cross-infection
B. To prevent additional injury to the victim
C. To make compressions deeper
D. To keep the casualty warm

Answer: A — To protect both rescuer and casualty from cross-infection

Gloves and face shields or pocket masks act as barriers against blood and body fluids, reducing the risk of transmitting infections such as hepatitis or HIV between rescuer and casualty during first aid and rescue breathing.

4. An AED (Automated External Defibrillator) should be used

A. As soon as it is available
B. Only after 30 minutes of CPR
C. Only on conscious casualties
D. Only by a doctor

Answer: A — As soon as it is available

Early defibrillation greatly improves survival from ventricular fibrillation. CPR is carried out until the AED arrives, then the AED is switched on and applied immediately; it is designed for use by trained lay rescuers.

5. A casualty who has suffered a head injury may also have suffered a ____.

A. concussion
B. appendicitis
C. asthma attack
D. heart murmur

Answer: A — concussion

A blow to the head can shake the brain within the skull, causing concussion: brief loss of consciousness, confusion, headache, dizziness or nausea. Any head-injury casualty should be watched closely for a changing level of response.

6. Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) is intended to protect

A. The wearer's head, eyes, body, hands and feet against workplace hazards
B. The ship's machinery against damage
C. The cargo against contamination
D. The marine environment against pollution

Answer: A — The wearer's head, eyes, body, hands and feet against workplace hazards

PPE such as helmets, goggles, coveralls, gloves and safety shoes protects the individual wearer's head, torso, arms, hands and feet. It is the last line of defence after hazards have been eliminated or controlled.

7. If the patient's chest does not rise during rescue breathing, you should check the patient's

A. Airway
B. Pulse at the wrist
C. Blood pressure
D. Pupils

Answer: A — Airway

If the chest does not rise, the airway is probably blocked or not properly opened. Re-tilt the head, lift the chin, look in the mouth for obstruction and ensure a good seal before trying again.

8. The recommended rate of chest compressions during CPR is ____ per minute.

A. 100-120
B. 60-80
C. 140-160
D. 30-40

Answer: A — 100-120

Current resuscitation guidelines call for compressions at 100-120 per minute to a depth of about 5-6 cm in adults, allowing full chest recoil between compressions, to maintain blood flow to the brain and heart.

9. Symptoms of a stroke can be

A. Drooping face, arm weakness and slurred speech
B. High fever with a rash
C. Itching of the skin
D. Pain in the lower back only

Answer: A — Drooping face, arm weakness and slurred speech

The FAST check - Face drooping, Arm weakness, Speech difficulty, Time to call for help - identifies a stroke. Sudden one-sided weakness, confusion or loss of vision are also warning signs needing urgent medical advice.

10. Before starting CPR, how should you check whether the casualty is responsive?

A. Tap the shoulders and ask loudly, "Are you all right?"
B. Give two rescue breaths
C. Pour cold water on the face
D. Measure the blood pressure

Answer: A — Tap the shoulders and ask loudly, "Are you all right?"

After ensuring the scene is safe, the rescuer checks responsiveness by gently shaking or tapping the shoulders and speaking loudly. An unresponsive casualty who is not breathing normally needs CPR and help must be summoned.

11. What is CPR?

A. A combination of chest compressions and rescue breathing
B. A method of stopping bleeding
C. A way of splinting fractures
D. A test for consciousness

Answer: A — A combination of chest compressions and rescue breathing

Cardiopulmonary resuscitation combines chest compressions, which pump blood to the brain and heart, with rescue breaths, which supply oxygen, to keep a casualty in cardiac arrest alive until defibrillation or medical help.

12. When is CPR performed?

A. When a person is in cardiac arrest
B. When a person has a nosebleed
C. When a person is unconscious but breathing normally
D. When a person has a simple fracture

Answer: A — When a person is in cardiac arrest

CPR is needed when a casualty is unresponsive and not breathing normally, indicating cardiac arrest. An unconscious casualty who is breathing normally should instead be placed in the recovery position and monitored.

13. What is one of the most common causes of cardiac arrest?

A. Heart attack due to coronary artery disease
B. Heartburn
C. Sprained ankle
D. Migraine

Answer: A — Heart attack due to coronary artery disease

Most adult cardiac arrests result from heart disease, especially a heart attack causing ventricular fibrillation. Other causes include drowning, electric shock, suffocation and severe blood loss. Heartburn is a digestive complaint, not a cause.

14. In CPR, what does C-A-B stand for?

A. Compressions, Airway, Breathing
B. Cardiac abnormal beat
C. Circulation, Alertness, Bleeding
D. Check, Alert, Breathe

Answer: A — Compressions, Airway, Breathing

C-A-B is the sequence used in current CPR guidelines: start chest Compressions first, then open the Airway and give rescue Breaths. Starting with compressions avoids delaying blood flow in cardiac arrest.

15. What does one cycle of adult CPR consist of?

A. Thirty chest compressions and two rescue breaths
B. Fifteen compressions and one breath
C. Five compressions and five breaths
D. Two compressions and thirty breaths

Answer: A — Thirty chest compressions and two rescue breaths

The standard ratio for single-rescuer CPR is 30 compressions followed by 2 rescue breaths, repeated without pause until an AED is available, the casualty recovers or qualified help takes over.

16. When you find an unconscious person, you check for signs of life (normal breathing) for no longer than

A. 10 seconds
B. 1 minute
C. 30 seconds
D. 5 minutes

Answer: A — 10 seconds

Checking for normal breathing and signs of life should take no more than 10 seconds so that CPR is not delayed. Occasional gasps are not normal breathing and should be treated as cardiac arrest.

17. The first step in operating an AED is to

A. Switch it on
B. Apply the pads
C. Press the shock button
D. Remove the battery

Answer: A — Switch it on

Once the AED arrives, switch it on first; it then gives voice prompts guiding the rescuer to attach the pads to the bare chest, stand clear for analysis and deliver a shock if advised.

18. If you are alone and find an unresponsive child who is not breathing, you should give about 2 minutes of ____ before leaving to call for help.

A. CPR
B. pulse checks
C. oxygen therapy
D. recovery position

Answer: A — CPR

Paediatric arrest is usually caused by breathing problems, so a lone rescuer gives about 2 minutes (five cycles) of CPR before leaving to summon help or fetch an AED, unless the collapse was witnessed.

19. You should move an injured person ONLY when

A. The scene becomes unsafe or there is immediate danger
B. You feel strong enough to lift them
C. The casualty asks for a drink
D. Bystanders are watching

Answer: A — The scene becomes unsafe or there is immediate danger

Moving a casualty can worsen injuries, particularly spinal injuries. A casualty should be moved before treatment only if there is immediate danger, such as fire, toxic gas or risk of explosion; otherwise treat where found.

20. What is the first step in managing a first aid situation?

A. Assess the scene for danger and make it safe
B. Move the casualty out of the vehicle
C. Give the casualty a drink
D. Apply a tourniquet

Answer: A — Assess the scene for danger and make it safe

The primary rule of first aid is to ensure the safety of yourself, bystanders and the casualty before approaching. Only then assess responsiveness, call for help and begin treatment, so the rescuer does not become a second casualty.

21. What is most important to manage in an unconscious person?

A. Airway
B. Fractures
C. Minor cuts
D. Body temperature

Answer: A — Airway

An unconscious casualty can lose muscle control so that the tongue falls back and blocks the airway, or vomit is inhaled. Opening and maintaining a clear airway, for example with the recovery position, is the top priority.

22. How do you check for breathing?

A. Look for chest movement, listen and feel for breath at the mouth and nose
B. Count the pulse at the wrist
C. Shine a light in the eyes
D. Press the fingernails

Answer: A — Look for chest movement, listen and feel for breath at the mouth and nose

With the airway open, the rescuer looks for the chest rising and falling, listens for breath sounds and feels for air on the cheek for no more than 10 seconds. Absent or abnormal breathing means CPR is required.

23. A ____ is the displacement of a bone end out of a joint.

A. Dislocation
B. Sprain
C. Strain
D. Contusion

Answer: A — Dislocation

A dislocation occurs when a bone is displaced from its normal position at a joint, commonly the shoulder, finger or jaw. A sprain is ligament damage and a strain is muscle damage; a dislocation should be supported, not reduced, by a first aider.

24. Is it advisable to remove clotted blood from an injured site?

A. No, it may cause fresh bleeding
B. Yes, always wash it away immediately
C. Yes, scrape it off with a clean knife
D. Only if the casualty is unconscious

Answer: A — No, it may cause fresh bleeding

A clot is the body's natural seal over a damaged vessel. Disturbing or removing it can restart bleeding, so the clot is left in place and a sterile dressing applied over it.

25. For a patient on board with severe pain, which medication is prescribed to reduce the pain?

A. Morphine sulphate 10 mg by intramuscular injection
B. Caffeine tablets
C. Antacid suspension
D. Vitamin C tablets

Answer: A — Morphine sulphate 10 mg by intramuscular injection

Morphine is the strong analgesic carried in the ship's medicine chest for severe pain, such as major fractures or burns. The usual adult dose is 10 mg intramuscularly, given on radio medical advice and recorded in the controlled drugs register.

26. What is the purpose of extending a splint beyond the joints at each end of a fractured bone?

A. To immobilise the joints above and below and give stability
B. To keep the casualty warm
C. To allow the limb to bend freely
D. To reduce the weight of the splint

Answer: A — To immobilise the joints above and below and give stability

A splint must immobilise the joint above and the joint below a fracture. This prevents movement of the broken bone ends, reducing pain, bleeding and further damage to nerves and blood vessels.

27. At what angle should a bent elbow be splinted?

A. At a right angle
B. At 30 degrees
C. At 45 degrees
D. Fully hyperextended

Answer: A — At a right angle

An injured elbow that is bent is supported at about a right angle across the chest, using a splint and arm sling, without forcing movement. This is the most comfortable and stable position and protects nerves and vessels.

28. Which of the following is NOT a danger sign of impaired circulation below a bandage or splint?

A. Warm, pink fingers with normal feeling
B. Blueness or whiteness of the fingers
C. Numbness or tingling in the fingers
D. Coldness of the fingers

Answer: A — Warm, pink fingers with normal feeling

After bandaging a limb, check circulation beyond it. Pale or blue skin, coldness, numbness or tingling mean the bandage is too tight and must be loosened. Warm pink skin with normal sensation indicates good circulation.

29. What will you do for a patient with a head injury whose face is flushed?

A. Raise the head and shoulders
B. Raise the legs
C. Lay the patient head-down
D. Give hot drinks

Answer: A — Raise the head and shoulders

In a head injury with a flushed face, the casualty is laid with head and shoulders slightly raised to reduce pressure in the head. If the face is pale, the casualty is laid flat. Nothing is given by mouth.

30. A fracture of which region may cause missing teeth, deformity, bleeding from the mouth and difficulty in swallowing?

A. The jaw
B. The skull vault
C. The collar bone
D. The cervical spine

Answer: A — The jaw

A fractured lower jaw typically shows misaligned or missing teeth, deformity, bleeding inside the mouth, excess saliva, pain on moving the jaw and difficulty speaking or swallowing. The airway must be watched carefully.

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EFA exit exam questions and answers — Set 32 — Elementary First Aid

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