Skip to content
DG Exit Exam
Home EFA sets
Answer Key

EFA exit exam questions and answers — Set 35 — Elementary First Aid

Set 35 of the Elementary First Aid (EFA) exit exam bank — 30 of 1185 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

Bank last rebuilt .

Practise these EFA questions EFA mock exit exam, 30 marks EFA exit exam sets and syllabus

30 of 30 shown · Set 35

Nothing in this set matches that. Try a shorter word, or search the whole key.

Set 35 — 30 EFA exit exam questions with answers

1. A poison can enter the body through swallowing, inhaling, absorption through the skin and ____.

  • A. Injection
  • B. Sweating
  • C. Hair growth
  • D. Blinking
Answer: A — Injection
Poisons enter the body by four routes: ingestion, inhalation, absorption through skin or eyes, and injection such as bites, stings or needles. Identifying the route guides first aid treatment.

2. What should you do if you get a chemical in your eye?

  • A. Flush with clean water immediately and continue for at least 20 minutes
  • B. Rub the eye firmly
  • C. Apply a tight bandage without washing
  • D. Wait to see if it gets worse
Answer: A — Flush with clean water immediately and continue for at least 20 minutes
Chemical eye splashes require immediate, prolonged irrigation with clean running water or eyewash for at least 15-20 minutes, holding the eyelids open, then medical advice. The relevant safety data sheet should be consulted.

3. If an injured person's pulse cannot be felt at the wrist, where should the pulse be taken?

  • A. At the neck (carotid pulse)
  • B. At the ankle
  • C. At the elbow
  • D. At the knee
Answer: A — At the neck (carotid pulse)
The carotid pulse, felt at the side of the neck beside the windpipe, is a central pulse that persists when the radial pulse at the wrist is too weak to feel, for example in shock.

4. Which statement about rescue breathing by members of the general public is correct?

  • A. Lay rescuers trained in CPR may give rescue breaths along with chest compressions
  • B. Members of the public must never give rescue breaths
  • C. Rescue breathing may be given only by doctors
  • D. Rescue breathing must be given only with a mechanical resuscitator
Answer: A — Lay rescuers trained in CPR may give rescue breaths along with chest compressions
Basic life support is designed for lay rescuers. A trained and willing bystander should give rescue breaths with compressions at 30:2, while an untrained bystander may give compression-only CPR. Waiting for professionals wastes vital minutes.

5. The best place to try to find a pulse in an adult is the ____.

  • A. Carotid artery at the side of the neck
  • B. Radial artery at the wrist
  • C. Brachial artery on the inside of the upper arm
  • D. Femoral artery in the groin
Answer: A — Carotid artery at the side of the neck
In an unresponsive adult the carotid pulse, felt in the groove at the side of the neck beside the windpipe, is the most reliable because central pulses persist when peripheral pulses such as the radial become too weak to feel.

6. If there are 2 rescuers for an adult victim and they are able to give rescue breaths, the correct ratio of compressions to breaths is ____.

  • A. 30 compressions to 2 breaths
  • B. 15 compressions to 1 breath
  • C. 15 compressions to 2 breaths
  • D. 5 compressions to 1 breath
Answer: A — 30 compressions to 2 breaths
For adults the compression-to-ventilation ratio is 30:2 for both one and two rescuers until an advanced airway is placed. The 15:2 ratio applies only to two-rescuer CPR on children and infants.

7. During CPR, if the victim's chest does not rise after 2 attempts to give breaths, you should ____.

  • A. Resume chest compressions and look in the mouth for an object each time the airway is opened
  • B. Keep trying to give breaths until you see the chest rise
  • C. Stop CPR and wait for medical help
  • D. Give abdominal thrusts only
Answer: A — Resume chest compressions and look in the mouth for an object each time the airway is opened
Interruptions to compressions must be kept under 10 seconds, so after two unsuccessful breaths the rescuer resumes compressions immediately. Each time the airway is opened for breaths, the mouth is checked and any visible obstruction removed.

8. When giving rescue breaths to a small child or infant, which technique is acceptable to form an airtight seal?

  • A. Cover both the mouth and nose of the victim with your mouth
  • B. Pinch the nose and seal over the mouth only, never the nose
  • C. Breathe through the nose only with the mouth held shut
  • D. Blow into the mouth from a short distance without a seal
Answer: A — Cover both the mouth and nose of the victim with your mouth
An infant's face is small enough for the rescuer's mouth to cover both the mouth and nose, giving an effective seal. Breaths should be gentle, just enough to make the chest rise visibly.

9. If you are performing rescue breathing for an adult victim who has a pulse, you should do all of the following EXCEPT:

  • A. Give 1 breath every 2 to 3 seconds
  • B. Give 1 breath about every 6 seconds
  • C. Check the pulse about every 2 minutes
  • D. Start CPR if the pulse is lost
Answer: A — Give 1 breath every 2 to 3 seconds
For an adult with a pulse but inadequate breathing, rescue breaths are given at about 1 every 6 seconds (10 per minute), with a pulse check about every 2 minutes and CPR started if the pulse disappears. A breath every 2 to 3 seconds is the rate for children and infants.

10. For a lone rescuer, after an unwitnessed collapse of a child or infant, when should the emergency response system be activated?

  • A. After giving about 2 minutes (5 cycles) of CPR
  • B. Immediately, before starting any CPR
  • C. Only after the AED has delivered a shock
  • D. Only if the victim has not recovered after 10 minutes of CPR
Answer: A — After giving about 2 minutes (5 cycles) of CPR
Cardiac arrest in children is usually caused by breathing problems, so a lone rescuer who did not witness the collapse gives about 2 minutes of CPR first to supply oxygen, then leaves to activate the emergency response and fetch an AED.

11. A child is gasping for breath but has a pulse rate of 100 per minute. The rescuers should ____.

  • A. Give rescue breaths without chest compressions and recheck the pulse about every 2 minutes
  • B. Start chest compressions immediately
  • C. Give abdominal thrusts
  • D. Place the child in the recovery position and take no further action
Answer: A — Give rescue breaths without chest compressions and recheck the pulse about every 2 minutes
Gasping is not normal breathing. With a pulse above 60 per minute compressions are not needed, so the child receives rescue breathing only, with the pulse rechecked about every 2 minutes and CPR started if it falls below 60 with poor perfusion.

12. A child is not breathing but has a pulse rate of 50 per minute with signs of poor perfusion. The rescuers should ____.

  • A. Start CPR beginning with chest compressions
  • B. Give rescue breaths only
  • C. Wait and recheck the pulse after 2 minutes
  • D. Place the child in the recovery position
Answer: A — Start CPR beginning with chest compressions
In a child or infant, a heart rate below 60 per minute with signs of poor perfusion despite breathing support is treated as cardiac arrest, so high-quality CPR beginning with compressions is started.

13. An infant who had been choking becomes unresponsive. The rescuer should ____.

  • A. Start CPR beginning with chest compressions, checking the mouth for the object before giving breaths
  • B. Continue alternating back slaps and chest thrusts
  • C. Perform abdominal thrusts
  • D. Perform blind finger sweeps until the object is found
Answer: A — Start CPR beginning with chest compressions, checking the mouth for the object before giving breaths
Once a choking infant becomes unresponsive, back slaps and chest thrusts stop and CPR begins. Compressions may dislodge the object, and the mouth is checked each time before breaths; blind finger sweeps are never used as they can push the object deeper.

14. Efforts to relieve choking in a responsive victim should be stopped when ____.

  • A. The obstruction is expelled and the victim can breathe or cough forcefully
  • B. Five back blows have been given
  • C. One minute has passed
  • D. The victim's face turns blue
Answer: A — The obstruction is expelled and the victim can breathe or cough forcefully
Back blows and abdominal thrusts continue until the object is expelled and the victim can breathe, cough or speak, or until the victim becomes unresponsive, when CPR is started instead.

15. How often should rescuers switch roles when performing two-rescuer CPR?

  • A. About every 2 minutes (5 cycles of CPR)
  • B. After every cycle of 30 compressions
  • C. Every 10 minutes
  • D. Only when the first rescuer is exhausted
Answer: A — About every 2 minutes (5 cycles of CPR)
Rescuer fatigue reduces compression depth and rate within a couple of minutes, so the compressor should be changed about every 2 minutes, or after 5 cycles of 30:2, taking less than 5 seconds for the switch.

16. What are the proper steps for operating an AED?

  • A. Power on the AED, attach the electrode pads, analyse the rhythm, clear the victim and deliver the shock
  • B. Attach the pads, deliver a shock, then power on the AED
  • C. Analyse the rhythm, deliver the shock, then attach the pads
  • D. Clear the victim, deliver the shock, then attach the pads and analyse
Answer: A — Power on the AED, attach the electrode pads, analyse the rhythm, clear the victim and deliver the shock
An AED is switched on first so its voice prompts guide the user. Pads are applied to the bare chest, everyone stands clear while the rhythm is analysed, and the shock is delivered only after confirming nobody is touching the victim.

17. Where should you perform a pulse check in a child aged from 1 year to puberty?

  • A. Carotid or femoral artery
  • B. Brachial artery
  • C. Radial artery
  • D. Temporal artery
Answer: A — Carotid or femoral artery
For children from 1 year to puberty the carotid or femoral pulse is checked, as in adults. The brachial artery on the inside of the upper arm is used for infants under 1 year because their short neck makes the carotid hard to locate.

18. Which of the following is a critical characteristic of high-quality CPR?

  • A. Starting chest compressions within 10 seconds of recognising cardiac arrest
  • B. Compressing at about 60 per minute
  • C. Compressing an adult chest to a depth of about 2 cm
  • D. Leaning on the chest between compressions
Answer: A — Starting chest compressions within 10 seconds of recognising cardiac arrest
High-quality CPR means starting compressions within 10 seconds of recognising arrest, pushing hard and fast at 100 to 120 per minute to at least 5 cm in adults, allowing full chest recoil and minimising interruptions.

19. The adult chain of survival includes all of the following EXCEPT:

  • A. Advanced airway placement
  • B. Immediate recognition of cardiac arrest and activation of the emergency response system
  • C. Early high-quality CPR
  • D. Rapid defibrillation
Answer: A — Advanced airway placement
The chain of survival links are recognition and activation, early CPR, rapid defibrillation, advanced life support and post-cardiac-arrest care. Advanced airway placement is one procedure within advanced care, not a link of its own.

20. In an adult with an advanced airway in place during 2-rescuer CPR, how often should breaths be given?

  • A. 1 breath every 6 seconds (10 breaths per minute)
  • B. 2 breaths after every 30 compressions
  • C. 1 breath every 2 seconds (30 breaths per minute)
  • D. 1 breath every 15 seconds (4 breaths per minute)
Answer: A — 1 breath every 6 seconds (10 breaths per minute)
With an advanced airway, compressions continue without pauses at 100 to 120 per minute while one breath is given every 6 seconds, about 10 per minute, according to current resuscitation guidelines. Over-ventilation reduces venous return and must be avoided.

21. When delivering back blows to a choking casualty, where should you aim on the casualty's back?

  • A. Between the shoulder blades
  • B. On the lower back
  • C. On the side of the chest
  • D. On the back of the neck
Answer: A — Between the shoulder blades
Back blows are given firmly with the heel of the hand between the shoulder blades while the casualty leans forward, so that the jolt and gravity help dislodge the obstruction out of the mouth.

22. When performing an abdominal thrust, where should you first place your hands?

  • A. Just above the navel, well below the breastbone
  • B. On the lower half of the breastbone
  • C. Over the lower ribs on one side
  • D. Just below the navel
Answer: A — Just above the navel, well below the breastbone
For abdominal thrusts the fist, thumb side in, is placed in the midline slightly above the navel and well below the tip of the breastbone. This avoids injury to the ribs and xiphoid process while forcing air up from the lungs.

23. Which of the following best describes how a defibrillator works?

  • A. It delivers an electrical shock that stops chaotic electrical activity so the heart can regain a normal rhythm
  • B. It pumps blood mechanically through the heart
  • C. It supplies oxygen directly to the heart muscle
  • D. It restarts a heart that shows no electrical activity at all
Answer: A — It delivers an electrical shock that stops chaotic electrical activity so the heart can regain a normal rhythm
Ventricular fibrillation is chaotic electrical activity. The defibrillator's shock depolarises the heart muscle all at once, allowing its natural pacemaker to restore an organised rhythm. A flat line (asystole) is not shockable.

24. A shipmate falls down a flight of stairs and thinks he may have broken his leg. What is the best thing to do?

  • A. Keep him still, support and immobilise the leg and summon help
  • B. Help him walk to his cabin to rest
  • C. Straighten the leg forcibly to reduce the fracture
  • D. Massage the leg to restore circulation
Answer: A — Keep him still, support and immobilise the leg and summon help
A suspected fracture should not be moved unnecessarily. Support the limb in the position found, immobilise it, watch for shock and send for help so the casualty can be splinted and moved safely by a stretcher party.

25. When giving chest compressions, approximately how many compressions per minute are correct?

  • A. 100 to 120 per minute
  • B. About 60 per minute
  • C. About 30 per minute
  • D. About 160 per minute
Answer: A — 100 to 120 per minute
Current resuscitation guidelines require chest compressions at a rate of 100 to 120 per minute for adults, children and infants. Slower rates do not produce adequate blood flow to the brain and heart.

26. When internal injury is suspected, which of the following should NOT be done?

  • A. Give the casualty a drink of water
  • B. Keep the casualty lying down and at rest
  • C. Treat for shock and keep the casualty warm
  • D. Monitor breathing and pulse
Answer: A — Give the casualty a drink of water
A casualty with suspected internal injuries may need surgery under anaesthesia, so nothing is given by mouth. Keep the casualty at rest, treat for shock, monitor vital signs and obtain medical advice urgently.

27. What is meant by the term compound fracture?

  • A. A fracture where the broken bone is associated with an open wound, the bone may protrude through the skin
  • B. A bone broken in more than one place
  • C. A crack in the bone with no displacement
  • D. A bone that is bent but not broken
Answer: A — A fracture where the broken bone is associated with an open wound, the bone may protrude through the skin
A compound or open fracture is one in which there is a wound leading down to the broken bone, sometimes with bone ends protruding. The risk of infection and bleeding is high, so the wound is covered with a sterile dressing before immobilising.

28. Which of these would be the best action if you suspected a casualty was choking?

  • A. Encourage the casualty to cough; if that fails give back blows followed by abdominal thrusts
  • B. Give the casualty a glass of water
  • C. Lay the casualty flat and start chest compressions immediately
  • D. Perform a blind finger sweep of the throat
Answer: A — Encourage the casualty to cough; if that fails give back blows followed by abdominal thrusts
If the casualty can cough, coughing is encouraged as it is the most effective way to clear the airway. If coughing becomes ineffective, up to five back blows are given, then abdominal thrusts, alternating until the obstruction clears.

29. Which of these is considered the best way to control severe bleeding?

  • A. Direct pressure over the wound
  • B. Applying a tourniquet as the first step
  • C. Washing the wound with water
  • D. Applying ice to the wound
Answer: A — Direct pressure over the wound
Firm direct pressure on the wound with a pad or the hand compresses the bleeding vessels and allows clotting. It is combined with elevation and rest; a tourniquet is reserved for life-threatening limb bleeding that direct pressure cannot control.

30. Which of these is best when you suspect that a casualty has fractured a bone?

  • A. Immobilise the affected area
  • B. Move the limb to check for a fracture
  • C. Massage the area to reduce swelling
  • D. Apply heat to the injury
Answer: A — Immobilise the affected area
Immobilising the injured part above and below the suspected fracture prevents further damage to bone, vessels and nerves, reduces pain and limits bleeding and shock until medical help is available.

Printing this? Use your browser's Print (Ctrl/⌘ + P) — the buttons, the search box and the site chrome drop out and the questions run on as plain text, so a set fits a few pages. Filter to one set first if you only want that set on paper.

Practise these EFA questions as a timed paper All 1185 EFA questions and answers EFA exit exam sets and syllabus All 24 STCW exit exam courses

Send this EFA answer key to your batch

Send on WhatsApp

More free tools for seafarers

Mariners DigestBrief for seafarers, Tue–SatSIRE PRO: Ship InspectionTanker inspection prepRightShip ProRISQ 3.2 dry-cargo inspection prepCOLREGS ReaderRules of the road, read aloud