EFA exit exam questions and answers — Set 6 — Elementary First Aid
Set 6 of the Elementary First Aid (EFA) exit exam bank — 30 of 1185 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.
These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.
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Set 6 — 30 EFA exit exam questions with answers
1. The recommended oxygen flow rate for nasal cannulae (nasal prongs) is:
- A. 1-6 litres/min
- B. 6-8 litres/min
- C. 8-12 litres/min
- D. 10-15 litres/min
2. When aligning the head in the eyes-front neutral position, watch for:
- A. Pulse, movement, sensation
- B. Crepitus, pain, resistance
- C. Pain, circulation, retention
- D. Tingling, numbness, paralysis
3. A conscious casualty who has suffered a stroke becomes unconscious. To keep his airway open and help him breathe, you should:
- A. Turn him into the recovery position with his unaffected side down
- B. Place him in a semi-sitting position
- C. Turn him into the recovery position with his unaffected side up
- D. Place him on his back
4. A worker has fallen from a six-foot ladder onto a concrete floor. Your first action should be:
- A. Take a SAMPLE history
- B. Perform a secondary survey
- C. Take charge and perform a scene survey
- D. Assess the rate and quality of breathing
5. The correct ratio of compressions to ventilations for two-rescuer CPR on a child is:
- A. 5:1
- B. 15:2
- C. 5:2
- D. 15:1
6. To determine whether a c-spine injury has occurred, you should think about the Mechanism of Injury. This can best be described as:
- A. The force that causes the injury and the way it acts on the body
- B. The circumstances after the injury
- C. The weather conditions at the time of the incident
- D. The area of the body that is injured
7. Shock is best defined as:
- A. Inadequate circulation to the body's tissues
- B. Inadequate delivery of oxygen to the lungs
- C. Inadequate elimination of waste products from the body
- D. Inadequate amount of insulin
8. The AED will shock a patient:
- A. With a sinus rhythm
- B. In asystole
- C. In ventricular fibrillation
- D. With pulseless electrical activity (PEA)
9. When transporting a patient, a shock should be administered:
- A. Only in a vehicle that is properly grounded
- B. Whenever the machine indicates shock necessary
- C. When the vehicle is stopped
- D. When the vehicle is traveling at less than 20 km per hour
10. When using an AED on a patient who is wearing a pacemaker, place the electrode pads:
- A. Directly on a pacemaker
- B. Two inches away from the pacemaker
- C. Within one inch of the pacemaker
- D. At least one inch away from the pacemaker
11. In the hypothermic patient, you should limit the number of shocks to a maximum of:
- A. 1 defibrillation attempt
- B. 2 defibrillation attempts
- C. 3 defibrillation attempts
- D. 4 defibrillation attempts
12. You have shocked a casualty and there are signs of circulation. You should:
- A. Remove the AED from the scene
- B. Leave the AED attached to the casualty
- C. Disconnect the cables from the AED
- D. Remove the pads from the chest
13. The most immediate serious complication associated with burns:
- A. Shock
- B. Infection
- C. Scarring
- D. Hypothermia
14. A man is filling a gas tank on a generator when it bursts into flames. The casualty has a hoarse voice, he is blistered around the mouth and nose and both arms are reddened. You should classify this burn as:
- A. Critical
- B. Superficial
- C. Moderate
- D. Minor
15. The body surface burned: the area of the palm of the hand represents what percentage of the total body surface?
- A. One percent (1%)
- B. Two percent (2%)
- C. Five percent (5%)
- D. Nine percent (9%)
16. An abrasion is:
- A. Deep break in the skin involving significant bleeding
- B. Partial or complete loss of a body part
- C. Objects through soft tissue
- D. The result of a scrape or rubbing away of the epidermis
17. A soft tissue injury resulting from the impact of a blunt object is called:
- A. A laceration
- B. An avulsion
- C. A contusion
- D. A concussion
18. A worker has had his hand caught in a car door. You suspect several fractured bones in the hand. The hand should be splinted:
- A. Clenched tightly into a fist
- B. Hanging down without support
- C. Flat against the splint
- D. In a position of function (holding a roll of bandage/soft fist)
19. Crepitus is:
- A. Poor distal circulation
- B. A grating sound caused by bone ends rubbing together
- C. A type of splint
- D. A type of fracture
20. In the case of suspected fracture of the clavicle, emergency responders should use:
- A. An arm sling supported with broad bandages
- B. A St. John tubular sling tie down the injured side
- C. A St. John tubular sling tie down the uninjured side
- D. Rigid splints to support the arm and support the shoulder
21. Force on a joint may cause bone ends to come out of their proper position. This type of injury is called a:
- A. Sprain
- B. Fracture
- C. Dislocation
- D. Strain
22. After an extremity fracture has been immobilized, the responder should check for circulation:
- A. In the injured limb only
- B. Distal to the injury
- C. Proximal to the injury
- D. At the site of the fracture
23. Effective immobilization of the tibia includes immobilization of the:
- A. Knee, tibia, fibula and ankle
- B. Femur, knee, tibia and ankle
- C. Femur and ankle
- D. Hip, femur, knee, tibia and ankle
24. The longest, strongest bone in the body is the:
- A. Humerus
- B. Fibula
- C. Tibia
- D. Femur
25. If the patient has an open fracture responders should:
- A. Attempt to push bones back into the wound
- B. Use bulky dressings to pad around the protruding bones ends
- C. Apply pressure directly over the fracture to control bleeding
- D. Apply a tourniquet above the fracture site
26. You are examining the head of an infant who has been involved in a car crash. You need to be aware of:
- A. Soft spots in the infant's skull
- B. Infant's pupils react too differently than adults
- C. Whether or not the infant can cry forcefully
- D. The startle reflex
27. When immobilizing a patient on a spine board, which part of the body is the first to be strapped?
- A. Chest
- B. Pelvis
- C. Legs
- D. Head
28. Cerebral contusions are:
- A. Usually controlled with direct pressure
- B. Very serious for the patient due to increased pressure in the brain
- C. Usually associated with scalp lacerations
- D. Almost always seen in children
29. Which one of the following changes in vital signs is characteristic of brain injury:
- A. Increase in pulse rate
- B. Constant respiratory rate
- C. Increase in blood pressure
- D. A decrease in blood pressure
30. The Glasgow Coma Scale measures three basic functions. They are:
- A. Eye, verbal and motor responses
- B. Pulse rate, speech, involuntary movement
- C. Pulse rate, respiration rate, eye response
- D. Respiration rate, eye response, voluntary movement
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