EFA exit exam questions and answers — Set 6
Set 6 of the Elementary First Aid (EFA) exit exam bank — 30 of 291 questions, with the correct option marked, and 29 of them also carry a one-line explanation. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.
These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.
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Set 6 — 30 EFA exit exam questions with answers
1. Oxygen humidification is recommended if you are administering oxygen for longer than:
- A. 15 minutes
- B. 30 minutes
- C. 60 minutes
- D. 90 minutes
2. You find a male patient with obvious difficulty breathing. He is using his neck muscles, and is cyanotic. There are red blotches on his chest, and his neck is swelling. You suspect:
- A. Anaphylaxis
- B. Bronchitis
- C. Emphysema
- D. Asthma
3. When you are giving mouth-to-nose AR, you should:
- A. Hold the casualty's mouth closed
- B. Pinch the nostrils closed before blowing air into the casualty
- C. Tilt the head back less than for the mouth-to-mouth method of AR
- D. Keep the mouth and nose closed between breaths
4. During one-rescuer CPR for adults, the ratio of compressions to ventilations should be:
- A. 5:1
- B. 15:2
- C. 30:2
- D. 35:2
5. To correctly size an oropharyngeal airway place the flange at the corner of the mouth with the tip reaching:
- A. The angle of the patient's jaw
- B. The top of the patient's ear
- C. The patient's earlobe
- D. Two-finger width from the flange
6. A guideline for normal systolic blood pressure in an adult male would be:
- A. 50 plus the man's age up to 150 mm Hg
- B. 65 plus the man's age up to 120 mm Hg
- C. 80 plus the man's age up to 130 mm Hg
- D. 100 plus the man's age up to 150 mm Hg
7. A second dose should be offered to the patient with chest pain who is taking nitroglycerin:
- A. Before the first dose of nitro
- B. After the first dose of nitro
- C. After the second dose of nitro
- D. After the third dose of nitro
8. When suctioning a non-breathing adult casualty, a first aider should:
- A. Apply suction as soon as the suction tip touches the mouth
- B. Insert the suction tip deep into the larynx
- C. Suction for no more than 15 seconds
- D. Insert the tip with the curved side towards the tongue
9. A flail chest results when:
- A. Three ribs are broken on each side of the chest
- B. Part of the spine becomes separated from the ribs
- C. The breastbone is broken in three places
- D. Several ribs are broken in more than one place
10. Which of the following devices provides the highest percentage of O2 delivery?
- A. Nasal cannula
- B. Plastic facemask
- C. Partial rebreathing mask
- D. Non-rebreathing mask
11. Status epilepticus refers to:
- A. Normal seizure patterns in epilepsy
- B. Seizures caused by a high fever
- C. Continuous seizure activity
- D. Seizures lasting longer than 2 minutes
12. You suspect a patient's pain is due to myocardial infarction rather than angina because the pain:
- A. Is under the sternum
- B. Radiates to neck, jaw and arms
- C. Is not relieved by rest or medication
- D. Lasts for about 3 minutes
13. OPQRST is used to assess:
- A. Pain
- B. Level of consciousness
- C. Vision
- D. Hearing
14. The recommended oxygen flow rate for nasal cannulae (nasal prongs) is:
- A. 1-6 litres/min
- B. 6-8 litres/min
- C. 8-12 litres/min
- D. 10-15 litres/min
15. When aligning the head in the eyes-front neutral position, watch for:
- A. Pulse, movement, sensation
- B. Crepitus, pain, resistance
- C. Pain, circulation, retention
- D. Tingling, numbness, paralysis
16. A conscious casualty who has suffered a stroke becomes unconscious. To keep his airway open and help him breathe, you should:
- A. Turn him into the recovery position with his unaffected side down
- B. Place him in a semi-sitting position
- C. Turn him into the recovery position with his unaffected side up
- D. Place him on his back
17. A worker has fallen from a six-foot ladder onto a concrete floor. Your first action should be:
- A. Take a SAMPLE history
- B. Perform a secondary survey
- C. Take charge and perform a scene survey
- D. Assess the rate and quality of breathing
18. The correct ratio of compressions to ventilations for two-rescuer CPR on a child is:
- A. 5:1
- B. 15:2
- C. 5:2
- D. 15:1
19. To determine whether a c-spine injury has occurred, you should think about the Mechanism of Injury. This can best be described as:
- A. The force that causes the injury and the way it acts on the body
- B. The circumstances after the injury
- C. The weather conditions at the time of the incident
- D. The area of the body that is injured
20. Shock is best defined as:
- A. Inadequate circulation to the body's tissues
- B. Inadequate delivery of oxygen to the lungs
- C. Inadequate elimination of waste products from the body
- D. Inadequate amount of insulin
21. The AED will shock a patient:
- A. With a sinus rhythm
- B. In asystole
- C. In ventricular fibrillation
- D. With pulseless electrical activity (PEA)
22. When transporting a patient, a shock should be administered:
- A. Only in a vehicle that is properly grounded
- B. Whenever the machine indicates shock necessary
- C. When the vehicle is stopped
- D. When the vehicle is traveling at less than 20 km per hour
23. When using an AED on a patient who is wearing a pacemaker, place the electrode pads:
- A. Directly on a pacemaker
- B. Two inches away from the pacemaker
- C. Within one inch of the pacemaker
- D. At least one inch away from the pacemaker
24. In the hypothermic patient, you should limit the number of shocks to a maximum of:
- A. 1 defibrillation attempt
- B. 2 defibrillation attempts
- C. 3 defibrillation attempts
- D. 4 defibrillation attempts
25. You have shocked a casualty and there are signs of circulation. You should:
- A. Remove the AED from the scene
- B. Leave the AED attached to the casualty
- C. Disconnect the cables from the AED
- D. Remove the pads from the chest
26. The most immediate serious complication associated with burns:
- A. Shock
- B. Infection
- C. Scarring
- D. Hypothermia
27. A man is filling a gas tank on a generator when it bursts into flames. The casualty has a hoarse voice, he is blistered around the mouth and nose and both arms are reddened. You should classify this burn as:
- A. Critical
- B. Superficial
- C. Moderate
- D. Minor
28. The body surface burned: the area of the palm of the hand represents what percentage of the total body surface?
- A. One percent (1%)
- B. Two percent (2%)
- C. Five percent (5%)
- D. Nine percent (9%)
29. An abrasion is:
- A. Deep break in the skin involving significant bleeding
- B. Partial or complete loss of a body part
- C. Objects through soft tissue
- D. The result of a scrape or rubbing away of the epidermis
30. A soft tissue injury resulting from the impact of a blunt object is called:
- A. A laceration
- B. An avulsion
- C. A contusion
- D. A concussion
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