EFA exit exam questions and answers — Set 9 — Elementary First Aid
Set 9 of the Elementary First Aid (EFA) exit exam bank — 30 of 1185 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.
These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.
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Set 9 — 30 EFA exit exam questions with answers
1. When dealing with an unconscious casualty we should check up to how long for normal breathing?
- A. 5 seconds
- B. 10 seconds
- C. 20 seconds
- D. 30 seconds
2. What is the best method of avoiding accidents in the workplace?
- A. By wearing safety equipment
- B. Doing things in one's own way
- C. By observing safety precautions
- D. Doing things with highly skilled working practice
3. What will be the effect if a person shows the symptoms of drowsiness?
- A. Activeness
- B. Laziness
- C. Conscious
- D. Unconscious
4. Which of the following behaviors reduces your risk for injury?
- A. Always wearing a safety belt when working
- B. Limiting intake of alcohol
- C. Limiting intake of foods high in cholesterol
- D. Both A and B
5. A wound where there is damage to the soft tissue and blood vessels under the skin is called:
- A. A scrape
- B. A cut
- C. A bruise
- D. An avulsion
6. When performing CPR on an adult how deep should the chest compression be?
- A. 1 1/2 inches
- B. 2 inches
- C. 2 1/2 inches
- D. 3 inches
7. When caring for a victim who has an object impaled in their hand you should:
- A. Remove the object, flush with cold water and transport to hospital
- B. Immobilize the object by placing several dressings around it
- C. Break object off where it sticks out, and bandage injury
- D. None of the above
8. A victim is coughing up blood with bleeding from the mouth and is tender in the abdomen. Pulse is weak and rapid. The victim is showing signs of:
- A. Massive head injuries
- B. Internal bleeding
- C. Drug overdose
- D. Possible poisoning
9. How can you reduce the risk of disease transmission when caring for open bleeding wounds?
- A. Wash your hands immediately after giving care
- B. Avoid direct contact with the blood
- C. Use protective barriers such as gloves or plastic wrap
- D. All of the above
10. You should suspect that a victim has head and spine injuries for:
- A. An accident involving a lightning strike
- B. A person found unconscious for unknown reasons
- C. A fall from a height greater than the victim's height
- D. All of the above
11. The accepted treatment for a femur or thigh fracture is:
- A. Place a short padded splint on each side of the leg
- B. This type of fracture is best handled by a traction splint applied by those with special training
- C. Move the victim before properly applying a leg splint
- D. Bind both legs with two long splints using two cravats, one above and one below the break
12. The accepted treatment for a sprained ankle is:
- A. Remove the shoe and check for swelling using the capillary reflex method
- B. Keep the shoe on, apply an ankle bandage for support, elevate and apply cold towels
- C. Keep the shoe on, apply an ankle splint and apply heat if possible
- D. Have the victim walk or move as soon as possible to prevent stiffness
13. A crew has his finger severed off, what action would be the best?
- A. Put the severed end of the finger back in place, wrap entire finger in sterile gauze and transport to hospital immediately
- B. Wrap the severed finger in sterile gauze, place it in a plastic bag, put the bag on ice and transport both finger and the victim to the hospital
- C. Place the severed finger in a plastic bag, have the crew place the bag under his armpit and transport immediately to the hospital
- D. Place a tourniquet at the stub where the finger severed to control bleeding and transport to hospital immediately
14. When performing CPR on a child how deep should the chest compression be?
- A. 1 1/2 inches
- B. 2 inches
- C. 2 1/2 inches
- D. 3 inches
15. Which of the following techniques is not suitable for moving an unconscious victim?
- A. Improvised stretcher
- B. Four-handed seat carry
- C. Two-person carry
- D. Blanket drag
16. Which of the following correctly describes the CPR technique for an adult?
- A. Four cycles of 15 compressions followed by one breath each minute
- B. One cycle of one breath and 10 compressions each 2 to 3 inches deep per minute
- C. Twelve cycles of one breath and 5 compressions per minute
- D. Four cycles of two breaths and 15 compressions per minute
17. Severe bleeding is a "hurry case". Which one of the following statements is true?
- A. Bleeding can seldom be stopped with direct pressure
- B. A tourniquet is almost always required to control serious bleeding
- C. Should the first sterile pad used become blood soaked, immediately remove it and apply another
- D. Try to avoid direct contact with blood by using gloves or clean barrier
18. You have a casualty that is muttering to themselves but not making any sense. The face appears to be drooping on one side. What might be wrong with them?
- A. They are having a heart attack
- B. They are in shock after witnessing an accident
- C. They may be having a stroke
- D. None of the above
19. What damage could occur if a first aider's hands are placed at the tip of the sternum (xiphoid process) during heart compressions?
- A. The patient may vomit as his stomach is squeezed
- B. The lungs may be punctured leading to severe loss of breath
- C. The ribs might be cracked
- D. The liver might be torn leading to severe internal bleeding
20. The proper stimulant for an unconscious person is:
- A. Tea
- B. Coffee
- C. Whiskey and water
- D. Ammonia inhalant
21. If someone suffers a heart attack and has ceased breathing, you should:
- A. Immediately give stimulant by force if necessary
- B. Make the victim comfortable in a bunk
- C. Immediately start CPR
- D. Administer oxygen
22. A comminuted fracture is one where the bone has:
- A. Broken into pieces which are floating
- B. Broken where only part of the bone is fractured
- C. Broken cleanly with each end attached
- D. Broken and is affecting muscles and nerves
23. In order to initiate CPR on a drowning victim:
- A. Start chest compressions before the victim is removed from the water
- B. Drain water from the lungs before ventilating
- C. Begin mouth-to-mouth ventilation
- D. Do not tilt the head back since it may cause vomiting
24. Some people are very allergic to insect bites and stings. The condition is called:
- A. Septic shock
- B. Cardiac arrest
- C. Toxic shock syndrome
- D. Anaphylactic shock
25. The goal of medical first aid service on board is to:
- A. Satisfactory treatment of male seamen
- B. Provide treatment for those in need of urgent medical care
- C. To provide help to seamen in time of financial need
- D. To provide help in the sea of disabled people
26. When performing abdominal thrusts, how many thrusts do you do in a series?
- A. 1 to 5 thrusts
- B. 6 to 10 thrusts
- C. 15 to 20 thrusts
- D. 30 to 40 thrusts
27. What does the ABC of first aid stand for?
- A. The letters in the alphabet
- B. Air, breathing, circulation
- C. Airway, breathing, circulation
- D. None of the above
28. If a person is choking you should do nothing as long as:
- A. They are coughing
- B. They are still conscious
- C. Their face has not turned blue
- D. They start crying
29. Before giving CPR you should make sure:
- A. They are not bleeding
- B. They are conscious or unconscious / unresponsiveness is confirmed
- C. They are not vomiting
- D. They are not dead
30. You are alone and administering CPR to an adult victim. How many chest compressions and how many inflations should you administer in each sequence?
- A. 15 compressions then 2 inflations
- B. 15 compressions then 4 inflations
- C. 30 compressions then 2 inflations
- D. 30 compressions then 4 inflations
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