STSDSD exit exam questions and answers — Set 1
Set 1 of the Security Training for Seafarers with Designated Security Duties (STSDSD) exit exam bank — 30 of 154 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.
These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.
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Set 1 — 30 STSDSD exit exam questions with answers
1. One can ensure structural security by:
- A. Sealing off the ship
- B. Limiting entry into the ship
- C. Locking all doors
- D. Limiting Access Points
Answer: D — Limiting Access Points
Structural security is enhanced by physical measures that restrict unauthorized movement. Limiting access points allows the crew to better monitor and control entries, significantly reducing the risk of unauthorized boarding or intrusion.
2. The port facility is required to appoint:
- A. Port Facility Security Officer
- B. Ship Security Officer
- C. Company Security Officer
- D. Port Facility Security Assessment (PFSA)
Answer: A — Port Facility Security Officer
The ISPS Code mandates that every port facility must appoint a Port Facility Security Officer (PFSO). This individual is responsible for the development, implementation, and maintenance of the Port Facility Security Plan.
3. The term "security level" refers to:
- A. The probability of an attack
- B. The degree of risk that a security incident will occur
- C. The level of danger
- D. The level of casualties
Answer: B — The degree of risk that a security incident will occur
Security levels, ranging from 1 to 3, quantify the risk of a security incident. Level 1 is normal, Level 2 indicates an elevated risk, and Level 3 represents the highest risk when an incident is probable or imminent.
4. Controlling embarkation of persons and their effects is done by:
- A. Access control, personal effects, and body searches
- B. Visitor control, personal effects, and body searches
- C. CCTV control, personal effects, and baggage control
- D. Baggage control, personal effects, and body searches
Answer: A — Access control, personal effects, and body searches
Access control is the primary method for maintaining ship security. It involves verifying the identity of personnel and screening their effects, including baggage, to ensure no weapons or dangerous items are brought on board.
5. To prevent a pirate attack, the first line of defense is:
- A. Proper lookout
- B. Seal all entrances to accommodation
- C. Maximize the speed of your vessel
- D. Early detection
Answer: D — Early detection
Early detection is the most vital defensive layer in maritime security against piracy. By identifying potential threats from a distance, the crew gains sufficient time to maneuver, increase speed, and initiate other protective measures.
6. IMO introduced the ISPS Code and made it mandatory to enhance security in:
- A. July 2004
- B. After the 9/11 incident
- C. December 2002
- D. July 1998
Answer: A — July 2004
The International Ship and Port Facility Security (ISPS) Code was adopted by the IMO as a direct response to the heightened global security concerns following the 9/11 incident, becoming mandatory in July 2004.
7. To meet the requirements of the ISPS Code, the most effective and practical methods used by port authorities for surveillance is:
- A. Use of security cameras
- B. Use of thermal cameras
- C. Trained security staff
- D. Dedicated task force to bolster security
Answer: A — Use of security cameras
Security cameras (CCTV) are a cost-effective and continuous surveillance method required by the ISPS Code. They allow for monitoring of restricted areas and access points, providing a visual deterrent and an audit trail of activity.
8. Security equipment and systems need not be:
- A. Calibrated and tested before every use
- B. Included in your pre-maintenance schedule (VMS)
- C. Kept under lock and key
- D. Tried out during each security drill
Answer: C — Kept under lock and key
Security equipment must be readily available when needed; therefore, it should be stored securely but accessible to authorized personnel. Keeping them under lock and key prevents tampering and ensures the gear is ready for use during a security threat.
9. Ship Security Assessments are the responsibility of:
- A. CSO (Company Security Officer)
- B. PFSO
- C. SSO
- D. Designated person
Answer: A — CSO (Company Security Officer)
While the SSO manages security on board, the Ship Security Assessment (SSA) is a complex process required by the Company Security Officer (CSO) to evaluate risks and develop the comprehensive Ship Security Plan (SSP).
10. The use of water spray and foam monitors to deliver jets of water on an attacking skiff is intended to:
- A. All of the above
- B. Deter the attackers
- C. Create a distraction
- D. Disable their weapons
Answer: A — All of the above
Water monitors are non-lethal, effective deterrents against pirate skiffs. They are used to create a physical barrier of water, hamper the visibility and maneuverability of the attackers, and protect the vessel's hull from boarding.
11. A security alert should be issued:
- A. Only after confirming the threat
- B. Immediately upon detection of a security threat
- C. When the ship is in territorial waters
- D. At the discretion of the Master
Answer: B — Immediately upon detection of a security threat
Prompt action is critical to maritime security. An alert must be issued immediately upon the detection of a threat to activate the ship's security protocols and ensure all crew members are warned and move to safety.
12. The person ultimately responsible for the security of the ship is:
- A. The Company Security Officer
- B. The Security Officer
- C. The Master
- D. The Chief Officer
Answer: C — The Master
While security officers handle the technical implementation of security plans, the Master retains the ultimate authority and responsibility for the ship, its cargo, and the safety of all personnel on board.
13. Security drills should be conducted:
- A. Quarterly
- B. As per the Ship Security Plan (SSP)
- C. Monthly
- D. Annually
Answer: B — As per the Ship Security Plan (SSP)
Security drills and exercises must be conducted at regular intervals as specified in the ship's security plan to ensure the crew is proficient in executing security procedures and responding to different alert levels.
14. A security breach investigation should include:
- A. Examination of evidence
- B. All of the above
- C. Review of security procedures
- D. Interviews with witnesses
Answer: B — All of the above
A thorough security investigation is essential to prevent recurrence. It requires a holistic review of what occurred, including interviews for qualitative data, physical evidence, and a critical analysis of current procedures to identify weaknesses.
15. The Designated Security Duties (DSD) officer is responsible for:
- A. Investigating security breaches
- B. Implementing the Ship Security Plan (SSP)
- C. Conducting security drills
- D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
Seafarers assigned Designated Security Duties (DSD) are integral to maintaining ship security. Their responsibilities, as outlined in the ISPS Code and STCW, encompass active implementation of the SSP, conducting security drills, and assisting the SSO in investigating security incidents. Therefore, all listed activities fall within their remit.
16. Corrective actions should be taken when:
- A. A security incident occurs
- B. A security drill is not conducted as planned
- C. A vulnerability in the security system is identified
- D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
Corrective actions are crucial for an effective Ship Security Plan (SSP) and overall maritime security. They are required proactively when vulnerabilities are identified, reactively after a security incident, and when scheduled security drills or exercises are not performed as planned, ensuring continuous improvement and compliance with ISPS Code.
17. Actions which are not necessarily part of an assessment of a security drill include:
- A. Debriefing by Master and SSO
- B. Disciplinary action against any crew member
- C. Written report of the drill
- D. Analysis and discussions on takeaways from drills
Answer: B — Disciplinary action against any crew member
The assessment of a security drill, as per the ISPS Code, focuses on evaluating performance, identifying deficiencies, and improving the Ship Security Plan (SSP). It involves debriefing, analysis, and a written report. Disciplinary action is generally not an immediate or necessary part of the drill assessment process itself, which is for learning and improvement.
18. Overt methods to overcome security measures include:
- A. Disabling alarms
- B. While the guards are sleeping
- C. Befriending the crew members
- D. Forcefully breaking and entering
Answer: D — Forcefully breaking and entering
Overt methods to overcome security measures are those that are open, observable, and often involve direct confrontation or visible force. Forcefully breaking and entering is a clear example of an overt act, as it directly and visibly challenges physical security barriers. Other options generally describe covert or subtle approaches.
19. The Declaration of Security (DoS) is to be completed on behalf of the ship by:
- A. CSO
- B. SSO
- C. Master
- D. Chief Officer
Answer: C — Master
The Declaration of Security (DoS) is a critical document under the ISPS Code, establishing shared security responsibilities between a ship and a port facility. It is signed by the Master of the ship and the Port Facility Security Officer (PFSO), as the Master holds ultimate authority and responsibility for the ship's operations and security.
20. The Global Integrated Shipping Information System (GIS) is accessible to:
- A. International Maritime Bureau
- B. IMO members
- C. Ship owners
- D. Contracting governments
Answer: B — IMO members
The Global Integrated Shipping Information System (GIS) is an IMO platform designed to provide restricted access to various maritime data. Its primary users and those with comprehensive access include IMO member states and related organizations for regulatory and enforcement purposes, supporting the implementation of international conventions.
21. Security measures are not necessarily extended by the contracting governments for:
- A. Offshore supply vessels (OSVs)
- B. Fishing vessels
- C. Naval vessels
- D. Passenger and cargo ships in coastal trade
Answer: B — Fishing vessels
The ISPS Code primarily applies to passenger ships, cargo ships over 500 gross tonnage, and mobile offshore drilling units engaged on international voyages. Fishing vessels are generally excluded from the mandatory provisions of the ISPS Code, although some national regulations might impose security measures.
22. To ensure ship's personnel are doing their security duties properly, one must carry out:
- A. On-scene security survey
- B. Surprise survey
- C. Intermediate survey
- D. Continuous survey
Answer: B — Surprise survey
To effectively verify that ship's personnel are performing their security duties correctly and consistently, surprise surveys or inspections are often employed. This method provides an unannounced assessment of adherence to the Ship Security Plan (SSP) and ISPS Code procedures, revealing actual operational practices rather than prepared demonstrations.
23. If a suspicious object or package is found on board, the first action should be to:
- A. Inform the person of your suspicion
- B. Activate radio communication
- C. Seize and open the package
- D. Cordon and control the area around the suspicious item
Answer: D — Cordon and control the area around the suspicious item
When a suspicious object is found, the immediate priority, as per ship security procedures, is to ensure safety and prevent potential harm. Cordoning off and controlling the area isolates the threat and allows for further assessment by qualified personnel, following the Ship Security Plan (SSP) protocols.
24. The protection of people is called:
- A. Physical security
- B. Ship security
- C. Crew security
- D. Human security
Answer: A — Physical security
In the context of security measures like those under the ISPS Code, "physical security" specifically refers to the protection of personnel, assets, and facilities from unauthorized access, damage, or harm. This includes controlling access, surveillance, and protective barriers for people on board, as opposed to broader concepts like human security.
25. Security equipment and systems disallowed for use on board include:
- A. Searchlights
- B. Razor wire and bar fence wires
- C. Locking equipment for all external doors
- D. Firearms
Answer: D — Firearms
Under international maritime law and the ISPS Code, commercial vessels are generally prohibited from carrying firearms, except in very specific circumstances with explicit authorization from the Flag State and coastal states. Other items like locks, razor wire (with proper precautions), and searchlights are commonly used security enhancements.
26. The mandatory requirements of the ISPS Code are contained in:
- A. Introduction
- B. Part A
- C. Part B
- D. Conference resolutions
Answer: B — Part A
The International Ship and Port Facility Security (ISPS) Code is divided into two parts. Part A contains the mandatory requirements, including those for Ship Security Plans (SSP) and Port Facility Security Plans (PFSP). Part B provides non-mandatory guidance for the implementation of these requirements.
27. Complaints of security incidents on board do not require:
- A. Periodic testing of communication equipment
- B. Immediate investigation
- C. Ship Security Plan to be displayed
- D. Reporting to the port facility
Answer: B — Immediate investigation
The Ship Security Plan (SSP) contains sensitive information regarding the ship's security arrangements and vulnerabilities, as per the ISPS Code. It is a confidential document that should only be accessible to authorized personnel and is explicitly not to be displayed openly on board, ensuring its integrity and effectiveness.
28. Who issues the CSR (Continuous Synopsis Record)?
- A. Company Security Officer
- B. Flag State
- C. Classification Society
- D. Port State Control
Answer: B — Flag State
The Continuous Synopsis Record (CSR) is an essential onboard document under SOLAS Chapter XI-1/5, providing a history of the ship. It is issued by the Flag State of the vessel and contains vital information such as the ship's name, flag, IMO number, and details of ownership and management, updated throughout its operational life.
29. What is the requirement for an Escape Route opening?
- A. Can only be opened using a master key
- B. Must be capable of opening from the direction for which escape is required
- C. None of the above
- D. Must be locked from the inside at all times
Answer: B — Must be capable of opening from the direction for which escape is required
Escape routes, particularly their openings, must always be readily accessible and operable to ensure the safe and rapid evacuation of personnel during an emergency, including security incidents. The SOLAS convention and ship safety regulations mandate that such openings are capable of being opened from the direction of escape without special tools.
30. What is the operational limitation of security equipment like a weld lock?
- A. It can easily fail due to high vibrations
- B. It cannot withstand marine corrosion
- C. It can only be operated electronically
- D. The weld locks can be cut open
Answer: D — The weld locks can be cut open
While weld locks offer a degree of physical security, their primary operational limitation lies in their vulnerability to determined intruders with appropriate tools. Weld locks, like other physical barriers, can be cut, ground, or broken open using specialized equipment, thereby compromising their protective function.
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