STSDSD exit exam questions and answers — Set 10 — Security Training for Seafarers with Designated Security Duties
Set 10 of the Security Training for Seafarers with Designated Security Duties (STSDSD) exit exam bank — 30 of 481 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.
These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.
Bank last rebuilt .
30 of 30 shown · Set 10
Nothing in this set matches that. Try a shorter word, or search the whole key.
Set 10 — 30 STSDSD exit exam questions with answers
1. To whom shall the master send a proposed amendment to the SSP?
- A. The flag state
- B. The port state
- C. The CSO
- D. The owners
2. Who shall assess the shipboard security drills?
- A. Master
- B. Chief Officer
- C. Chief Engineer
- D. SSO
3. The ISPS Code is mandatory for:
- A. Sailing ships
- B. Mobile offshore drilling units on international voyages
- C. Both sailing ships and mobile offshore drilling units
- D. None of the above
4. During container loading at security level 2, which of the following is required?
- A. Stop cargo loading
- B. Call shore security personnel to do the loading
- C. Check the seals/locks of all containers loaded
- D. Check loading as per the loading plan
5. Areas designated as ____ in the SSP should be well marked and secured against unauthorised entry.
- A. Private areas
- B. Master's areas
- C. Public areas
- D. Restricted areas
6. The Port Facility Security Officer's tasks include:
- A. Implementing the port facility security plan
- B. Coordinating security with ships
- C. Assisting ship's personnel in case of a security incident
- D. All of the above
7. Which part of the ISPS Code contains guidelines (recommendatory provisions)?
- A. Part A
- B. Part B
- C. Part C
- D. Part D
8. Where should the safe house or citadel be located on the ship?
- A. At any location that is difficult for the crew to find
- B. At a location that is difficult for the pirates to locate and access
- C. At any location that is difficult for the master to find
- D. At any location that is difficult for the SSO to find
9. The minimum number of SSAS activation points required on board is:
- A. One
- B. Two
- C. Three
- D. Four
10. For security matters, who is the person designated in the port for liaison with the Ship Security Officer?
- A. Port Facility Security Officer (PFSO)
- B. Company Security Officer (CSO)
- C. Harbour Master
- D. Port Captain
11. A Declaration of Security is signed by the master or SSO on behalf of the ship and, on behalf of the port facility, by the:
- A. Company Security Officer
- B. Local coast guard officer
- C. Port Facility Security Officer
- D. Harbour master
12. An RSO cannot do which of the following for a company or port?
- A. Prepare a security plan
- B. Carry out a ship security assessment
- C. Set the security level
- D. None of the above
13. The Continuous Synopsis Record is issued by:
- A. The classification society
- B. The owners
- C. The managers
- D. The flag state Administration
14. Which of the following places in the galley and dry stores is the LEAST likely hiding place for drugs or contraband?
- A. On the hot plate
- B. In the flour bins
- C. Under or behind refrigerators
- D. Inside fish or sides of beef in the freezer
15. The Port Facility Security Plan should provide procedures for:
- A. Evacuation in case of security threats or breaches of security
- B. Setting the security level of visiting ships
- C. Approving the SSPs of visiting ships
- D. Issuing the ISSC to visiting ships
16. The Ship Security Plan is designed to protect ____ from the risks of a security incident.
- A. Persons on board only
- B. Cargo only
- C. The ship only
- D. Persons on board, cargo, cargo transport units, ship's stores and the ship
17. The SSAS activation points shall be designed so as to:
- A. Prevent inadvertent initiation of the security alert
- B. Sound a loud alarm on the bridge
- C. Be visible to all visitors
- D. Require a password from the company
18. Under IMO guidance, a Private Maritime Security Company (PMSC) providing armed guards should:
- A. Maintain adequate insurance cover
- B. Take command of the ship during an attack
- C. Be exempt from flag state law
- D. Carry weapons without any documentation
19. When a ship changes its flag, the Continuous Synopsis Record:
- A. Remains on board and the previous Administration sends a copy to the new Administration
- B. Is destroyed and a new record started without history
- C. Is returned to the classification society
- D. Is surrendered to the port state
20. Once activated, the SSAS shall:
- A. Continue the ship security alert until deactivated and/or reset
- B. Transmit only a single alert message
- C. Stop transmitting automatically after 10 minutes
- D. Sound an alarm throughout the ship
21. Regarding alarms on board, every crew member should:
- A. Know the various alarms and the correct response to each
- B. Know only the general emergency alarm
- C. Leave all alarm responses to the SSO
- D. Respond to alarms only when instructed by the master
22. Amendments to the approved Ship Security Plan relating to ISPS Code requirements shall be implemented:
- A. Only after approval by the Administration (or RSO on its behalf)
- B. At the master's discretion
- C. After informing the PFSO
- D. After the next annual company audit
23. Acts of piracy and armed robbery reported to coastal or port States should be reported by those States to:
- A. IMO
- B. The ship's P&I club
- C. The classification society
- D. The shipbuilder
24. A security drill is best described as a supervised activity used to:
- A. Test a single measure or procedure in the SSP
- B. Test the full port security system together with authorities
- C. Audit the International Ship Security Certificate
- D. Replace security training of the crew
25. In the ISPS Code, 'security level' means the qualification of the degree of risk that:
- A. A security incident will be attempted or will occur
- B. A ship will be detained by PSC
- C. Cargo will be damaged
- D. A collision will occur
26. Who must be familiar with the location of, and the shortest route to, the safe house or citadel?
- A. All crew members
- B. Only the master and the SSO
- C. Only the deck officers
- D. Only the engine room crew
27. When the ship is transiting an area of piracy risk, the master should:
- A. Keep only the minimum cash on board
- B. Carry extra cash to pay pirates on demand
- C. Keep all cash openly in the master's cabin
- D. Distribute the ship's cash among all crew
28. A port facility is a location, as determined by the Contracting Government, where:
- A. The ship/port interface takes place
- B. Ships are built
- C. Ships are dry-docked only
- D. The CSO's office is located
29. When the SSAS is activated, it:
- A. Does not raise any alarm on board the ship
- B. Sounds the general emergency alarm
- C. Alerts all ships in the vicinity
- D. Sounds the ship's whistle
30. Which of the following is addressed in the Ship Security Plan?
- A. Security measures for handling cargo, ship's stores and unaccompanied baggage
- B. Crew wage scales
- C. Ship's stability calculations
- D. Bunker purchase procedures
Printing this? Use your browser's Print (Ctrl/⌘ + P) — the buttons, the search box and the site chrome drop out and the questions run on as plain text, so a set fits a few pages. Filter to one set first if you only want that set on paper.
