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DG Exit Exam
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STSDSD exit exam questions and answers — Set 11 — Security Training for Seafarers with Designated Security Duties

Set 11 of the Security Training for Seafarers with Designated Security Duties (STSDSD) exit exam bank — 30 of 481 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

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Set 11 — 30 STSDSD exit exam questions with answers

1. An RSO that has prepared a ship's SSA or SSP:

  • A. Shall not approve that SSP
  • B. May approve it if the master agrees
  • C. Must approve it within 30 days
  • D. May approve it for security level 1 only
Answer: A — Shall not approve that SSP
ISPS Code A/9.2.1 states that an RSO undertaking the review and approval of an SSP shall not have been involved in the preparation of the ship security assessment or SSP under review, to ensure independence.

2. Information on the locations of the SSAS activation points should be:

  • A. Known only to key ship's personnel
  • B. Displayed at the gangway
  • C. Shared with all visitors
  • D. Marked prominently on deck plans displayed in alleyways
Answer: A — Known only to key ship's personnel
The SSAS is a covert system, so its activation points are not marked or publicised. Their locations are confidential and known only to the master, SSO and other key personnel, and may be kept separately from the SSP (ISPS A/9.4.18).

3. In maritime security terms, a 'deficiency' means:

  • A. A failure to comply with the requirements of the maritime security measures
  • B. Any security incident
  • C. A breach of security by pirates
  • D. A delay in cargo operations
Answer: A — A failure to comply with the requirements of the maritime security measures
A deficiency is a failure to comply with the requirements of SOLAS XI-2 and the ISPS Code, for example missing records or SSP measures not implemented. It is found during audits, verifications or control inspections and requires corrective action.

4. A Declaration of Security is an agreement reached between:

  • A. A ship and a port facility or another ship with which it interfaces
  • B. A port facility and the CSO
  • C. The flag state and the company
  • D. The master and the crew
Answer: A — A ship and a port facility or another ship with which it interfaces
ISPS Code A/2.1.15 defines the DOS as an agreement reached between a ship and either a port facility or another ship with which it interfaces, specifying the security measures each will implement.

5. A key shipboard operation to be considered in the ship security assessment is:

  • A. Planned maintenance work
  • B. Equipment and machinery trials
  • C. Handling of ship's stores
  • D. Mooring and unmooring
Answer: C — Handling of ship's stores
ISPS Code A/8 and B/8 require the SSA to identify key shipboard operations that must be protected, including access control, handling of cargo and delivery of ship's stores, through which unauthorised items could enter.

6. Security risk assessment is done by evaluating:

  • A. The type of risk
  • B. The reason for the risk
  • C. The likelihood and the consequences of the risk
  • D. The existing security measures
Answer: C — The likelihood and the consequences of the risk
Risk is assessed as a combination of the likelihood of a threat occurring and the consequences if it does. This is the basis of the ship and port facility security assessments under the ISPS Code.

7. Security aspects of the ship layout to be verified and surveyed are:

  • A. All access points to the ship and the prevention of unauthorised access
  • B. Location of crew accommodation and engine room
  • C. Positioning of cargo gear such as cranes and derricks
  • D. Location of ballast and oil tanks
Answer: A — All access points to the ship and the prevention of unauthorised access
The on-scene security survey in ISPS Code A/8.4 and B/8.5 focuses on identifying all access points to the ship and the measures needed to prevent unauthorised access, which are the main security weaknesses of a ship.

8. During verification of the SSP a security drill is conducted. Observations needing corrective action will be raised if:

  • A. The SSO demonstrates excessive control
  • B. Measures over and above those in the SSP are implemented
  • C. The master's actions are proactive and in line with the SSP
  • D. There is inadequate participation of crew members in the drill
Answer: D — There is inadequate participation of crew members in the drill
Drills are meant to test crew response to SSP procedures. Inadequate crew participation shows that the plan is not effectively implemented and would be noted by the auditor for corrective action under ISPS Code requirements.

9. The highest risk during a pirate attack arises from:

  • A. Dummies used to deter pirates
  • B. Physical barriers at vulnerable locations
  • C. Crew members left outside the citadel
  • D. Water cannons with low water pressure
Answer: C — Crew members left outside the citadel
A citadel only works if all crew are inside it. Any crew member left outside can be captured and used as leverage, and naval forces will normally not intervene unless all crew are accounted for in the citadel (BMP).

10. If a ship is at, or is required by its Administration to set, a higher security level than the port it intends to enter, the ship shall advise:

  • A. The SSO
  • B. The Designated Authority and the PFSO
  • C. The harbour master only
  • D. The CSO only
Answer: B — The Designated Authority and the PFSO
SOLAS XI-2/4.5 requires a ship at a higher security level than the port facility to advise, without delay, the competent authority of the Contracting Government in whose territory the port facility is located and the PFSO.

11. An RSO's role with regard to a port facility is related to:

  • A. Issuance of ISPS certificates to the port
  • B. Carrying out port facility security assessments/surveys
  • C. Approving the port facility security plan developed by it
  • D. Developing the SSP
Answer: B — Carrying out port facility security assessments/surveys
ISPS Code A/4.3 permits an RSO to conduct port facility security assessments on behalf of the Contracting Government, but approval of the PFSA and PFSP is reserved to the Government and cannot be delegated.

12. The system developed by IMO to provide access to maritime security information and other shipping information to all end users is:

  • A. SAR Convention
  • B. ISPS Code
  • C. SOLAS
  • D. Global Integrated Shipping Information System (GISIS)
Answer: D — Global Integrated Shipping Information System (GISIS)
GISIS is IMO's online database giving public and Member State access to data such as maritime security information, piracy and armed robbery reports, port facility data and ship particulars.

13. The International Ship Security Certificate (ISSC) is issued to the ship by the:

  • A. Coast guard
  • B. Port authorities
  • C. CSO
  • D. Flag state (or an RSO on its behalf)
Answer: D — Flag state (or an RSO on its behalf)
ISPS Code A/19.2 states that the ISSC is issued or endorsed by the Administration of the flag State, or by an RSO acting on its behalf, after initial or renewal verification of the ship.

14. A Port Facility Security Officer is responsible for:

  • A. Maintenance of the port
  • B. Maintenance of the Port Facility Security Plan
  • C. Entry of persons into the port
  • D. Entry of vehicles into the port
Answer: B — Maintenance of the Port Facility Security Plan
ISPS Code A/2.1.8 and A/17.2 make the PFSO responsible for developing, implementing, revising and maintaining the Port Facility Security Plan, and for liaison with SSOs and CSOs.

15. A Contracting Government ensures implementation of the legal security requirements (PFSO, PFSP etc.) in port facilities within its jurisdiction acting as the:

  • A. Flag state
  • B. Port state
  • C. Coastal state
  • D. Coast guard
Answer: B — Port state
Security of port facilities is the responsibility of the Contracting Government in whose territory they lie, acting as port State through its Designated Authority, which approves PFSAs and PFSPs and sets port security levels.

16. When a security risk is identified, the Contracting Government should inform ships and all concerned of the:

  • A. Source of the information
  • B. Exact location of the risk
  • C. Severity of the risk
  • D. Current security level
Answer: D — Current security level
SOLAS XI-2/3 and ISPS A/4 require Contracting Governments to set security levels and provide security-level information to ships and port facilities, without disclosing the source of the intelligence.

17. Whenever security level 2 or 3 is set by the Administration, the ship shall:

  • A. Alert all crew on board
  • B. Inform the company only
  • C. Acknowledge receipt of the instructions on the change of security level
  • D. Alert the boat crew
Answer: C — Acknowledge receipt of the instructions on the change of security level
ISPS Code A/7.4 requires a ship, when a higher security level is set by the Administration, to acknowledge receipt of the instructions on the change of security level and confirm that it has implemented the required measures.

18. The SSO's duties and responsibilities include:

  • A. Comparing the SSPs of other ships in the fleet
  • B. Overseeing security assessments of the entire fleet
  • C. Reviewing the PFSP of the port of call
  • D. Reporting all security incidents
Answer: D — Reporting all security incidents
ISPS Code A/12.2 lists SSO duties, including reporting to the CSO any deficiencies and non-conformities and reporting all security incidents. Fleet-wide assessments are CSO functions, and PFSPs are reviewed by the PFSO.

19. On security grounds, the master has the authority to directly:

  • A. Reject any cargo of dangerous goods
  • B. Deny access to all foreign nationals
  • C. Allow free entry of crew members from other vessels
  • D. Reject stores of a suspicious nature
Answer: D — Reject stores of a suspicious nature
SOLAS XI-2/8 gives the master overriding authority for decisions on ship security, including denying access to persons or their effects and refusing to load cargo or ship's stores considered suspicious or a security risk.

20. A CSO can be nominated for:

  • A. One ship only
  • B. Two ships only
  • C. Three ships only
  • D. One or several ships
Answer: D — One or several ships
ISPS Code A/11.1 states that a company may designate a person as CSO for one or more ships, depending on the number and types of ships operated, provided responsibilities are clearly defined.

21. The ship's arrival and departure times are considered:

  • A. Security-sensitive information
  • B. Freely accessible information
  • C. Unimportant information
  • D. Public information to be advertised
Answer: A — Security-sensitive information
Details of a ship's movements, including arrival and departure times, could help criminals or terrorists plan an attack. In security training they are treated as security-sensitive and shared only with those who need them.

22. A port facility is required to act upon the security levels set by:

  • A. The flag state of the visiting ship
  • B. IMO
  • C. The Contracting Government within whose territory it is located
  • D. The national police
Answer: C — The Contracting Government within whose territory it is located
ISPS Code A/14.1 requires a port facility to act upon the security levels set by the Contracting Government within whose territory it is located, implementing the measures in its PFSP for that level.

23. A security incident is defined as:

  • A. An attack on a ship obstructing safe navigation
  • B. Any suspicious act or circumstance threatening the security of a ship or port facility
  • C. An attack on the security officer while in port
  • D. Any act endangering the safety of a ship in port
Answer: B — Any suspicious act or circumstance threatening the security of a ship or port facility
SOLAS XI-2/1.1.13 defines a security incident as any suspicious act or circumstance threatening the security of a ship, MODU, high-speed craft, port facility, ship/port interface or ship-to-ship activity.

24. A ship-to-ship activity means any activity not related to a port facility that involves the transfer of goods or persons:

  • A. Between two ships in port only
  • B. Between two ships at anchorage only
  • C. Between two ships of the same flag only
  • D. From one ship to another
Answer: D — From one ship to another
SOLAS XI-2/1.1.10 defines a ship-to-ship activity as any activity not related to a port facility that involves the transfer of goods or persons from one ship to another, wherever it takes place.

25. Security level 2 applies for the period of time during which there is:

  • A. A need to maintain minimum protective security measures
  • B. A recent piracy attack in the region
  • C. A heightened risk of a security incident
  • D. An imminent or probable security incident
Answer: C — A heightened risk of a security incident
ISPS Code A/2.1.10-12 defines level 1 as normal minimum measures, level 2 as the level for a heightened risk of a security incident, and level 3 for when a security incident is probable or imminent.

26. Special measures to enhance maritime safety are contained in SOLAS Chapter:

  • A. IX
  • B. X
  • C. XI-1
  • D. XI-2
Answer: C — XI-1
SOLAS Chapter XI-1 covers special measures to enhance maritime safety, such as the IMO ship identification number and the Continuous Synopsis Record. Chapter XI-2 deals with special measures to enhance maritime security.

27. C&ROIN is the acronym for:

  • A. Crew and registration identification number
  • B. Company and registered owner identification number
  • C. Company and registration of independent number
  • D. Company and registered organisation identification number
Answer: B — Company and registered owner identification number
SOLAS XI-1/3-1 requires the IMO unique company and registered owner identification number (C&ROIN) to be assigned to companies and registered owners and recorded on certificates such as the DOC, SMC, ISSC and CSR.

28. A circumstance that can warrant a Declaration of Security is when the:

  • A. Ship is operating at a higher security level than the port facility
  • B. Ship is operating at security level 1
  • C. Ship is operating at security level 2 with the port at level 2
  • D. Ship is operating at a lower security level than the port
Answer: A — Ship is operating at a higher security level than the port facility
ISPS Code A/5.2 lists cases where a ship can request a DOS, including when the ship is operating at a higher security level than the port facility or another ship with which it interfaces.

29. The Continuous Synopsis Record (CSR) is maintained and updated:

  • A. Throughout the ship's life
  • B. Every voyage
  • C. Every month
  • D. Every year
Answer: A — Throughout the ship's life
SOLAS XI-1/5 requires the CSR to provide an on-board record of the ship's history, kept on board and updated whenever particulars such as flag, name, owner or company change, throughout the life of the ship.

30. Approval of the PFSP (Port Facility Security Plan) is under the authority of the:

  • A. Flag state
  • B. Port state (Designated Authority)
  • C. Recognised Security Organisation
  • D. Ship's coastal state of registry
Answer: B — Port state (Designated Authority)
ISPS Code A/16.1 requires the PFSP to be approved by the Contracting Government in whose territory the port facility is located; under A/4.3 this approval cannot be delegated to an RSO.

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