STSDSD exit exam questions and answers — Set 14 — Security Training for Seafarers with Designated Security Duties
Set 14 of the Security Training for Seafarers with Designated Security Duties (STSDSD) exit exam bank — 30 of 481 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.
These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.
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Set 14 — 30 STSDSD exit exam questions with answers
1. During a ship security assessment, 'procedural policies' refers to:
- A. The ship's stability booklet
- B. The written and practised procedures such as access control, visitor handling, key control and reporting
- C. The company's commercial policies
- D. The ship's insurance policy
2. A key purpose of identifying vulnerabilities during the SSA is to:
- A. Prepare countermeasures that reduce the ship's exposure to identified threats
- B. Calculate the ship's freight earnings
- C. Decide the crew's nationality
- D. Replace the need for an SSP
3. Which characteristics make a merchant ship most vulnerable to pirate boarding?
- A. Low freeboard and slow speed
- B. Large crew and high freeboard
- C. High freeboard and high speed
- D. Night-time speed above service speed
4. Why do small-boat pirate attacks become less likely in rough sea conditions?
- A. Ships carry armed guards only in rough weather
- B. Ship radars work only in rough weather
- C. Pirates are prohibited from operating during monsoons
- D. Small skiffs find it difficult to approach and place ladders alongside in heavy seas
5. Before entering a high-risk area, ships following BMP should register with which organisation for the Gulf of Aden/Somali basin?
- A. IMB Piracy Reporting Centre only
- B. ReCAAP ISC
- C. International Labour Organization
- D. MSCHOA (Maritime Security Centre - Horn of Africa)
6. Under BMP guidance, UKMTO serves merchant ships in the Indian Ocean/Red Sea region as:
- A. The classification society for armed guards
- B. The primary point of contact for reporting position and security incidents in the Voluntary Reporting Area
- C. The ship's P&I insurer
- D. The authority that issues ISSCs
7. In the Gulf of Guinea, the reporting and information centre for merchant ships operated by the French and UK navies is:
- A. ReCAAP ISC
- B. UKMTO Dubai only
- C. MSCHOA
- D. MDAT-GoG (Maritime Domain Awareness for Trade - Gulf of Guinea)
8. Ship protection measures recommended by BMP are intended primarily to:
- A. Allow pirates to board without harm
- B. Replace the need for watchkeeping
- C. Increase the ship's cargo capacity
- D. Detect, deter and delay boarding until help arrives or the attack is abandoned
9. Which of the following is a BMP-recommended physical barrier against boarding?
- A. Lowering the accommodation ladder
- B. Leaving the pilot ladder rigged
- C. Removing all deck lighting
- D. Razor wire fitted along the ship's side rails
10. Transiting the Gulf of Aden in the Internationally Recommended Transit Corridor (IRTC) and in a group transit is advised because:
- A. It reduces fuel consumption to zero
- B. The corridor is outside all coastal States' waters, so no piracy occurs
- C. Pirates are not permitted to enter it
- D. Naval forces concentrate their patrols in the corridor and ships moving together are easier to protect
11. While transiting a high-risk area, why should ships update their position frequently with the flag State, coastal authorities and naval forces?
- A. So that authorities know where the ship is and can respond quickly if it is attacked
- B. Because AIS is always switched off by law
- C. To claim reduced port dues
- D. To obtain weather routing
12. Somali piracy has typically followed a business model based on:
- A. Hijacking ships and holding the ship and crew for ransom off the Somali coast
- B. Stealing cargo containers in port
- C. Selling forged certificates
- D. Smuggling stowaways to Europe
13. Which equipment did Somali pirates typically use to extend their range into the Indian Ocean?
- A. Submarines
- B. Helicopters
- C. Motherships, often hijacked dhows or fishing vessels, towing attack skiffs
- D. Large container ships
14. Before entering a high-risk area, the master should ensure that the crew:
- A. Are briefed on the ship protection measures, alarm signals and actions, and have rehearsed citadel drills
- B. Have switched off all alarms
- C. Are given extra shore leave
- D. Have removed physical barriers to improve access
15. A distinct piracy or attack alarm on board is recommended because:
- A. It is required only in port
- B. Crew must be able to distinguish it from fire or abandon ship alarms and react correctly
- C. It replaces the general alarm
- D. It informs the pirates that they have been seen
16. When dummies or mannequins are placed on deck in a high-risk area, the purpose is to:
- A. Train crew in first aid
- B. Serve as targets for weapons practice
- C. Give the impression of extra lookouts or armed guards to deter attackers
- D. Test fire-fighting equipment
17. Enhanced bridge protection measures in BMP guidance include:
- A. Painting the bridge in bright colours
- B. Protective materials such as sandbags or plating around the bridge wings and windows to protect against gunfire
- C. Removing the bridge windows
- D. Moving the ship's controls to the poop deck
18. The Joint War Committee 'Listed Areas' are important to a ship planning a voyage because they:
- A. Are areas closed to all navigation
- B. Are areas where the ISPS Code does not apply
- C. List ports where crew changes are prohibited
- D. Identify areas of perceived enhanced risk where additional insurance and precautions apply
19. On sighting a suspicious craft approaching at high speed in a high-risk area, the first action of the officer of the watch should be to:
- A. Lower the pilot ladder to show peaceful intent
- B. Raise the alarm, increase to maximum speed and inform the master
- C. Switch off all navigation lights
- D. Stop the engines and wait
20. During a pirate attack, who must the ship report to in the Indian Ocean Voluntary Reporting Area?
- A. UKMTO, followed by the company and flag State as per the SSP
- B. Only the next port agent
- C. The classification society
- D. Only the charterer
21. Before the crew retreat into the citadel when pirates are about to board, the bridge team should normally:
- A. Open all accommodation doors
- B. Stop the main engine and ensure all crew are accounted for
- C. Leave the radio on channel 16 broadcasting the citadel location
- D. Leave the engine at full speed with the wheel on autopilot towards the coast
22. Naval forces will generally only consider a military intervention to free a boarded ship when:
- A. Some crew are still on deck
- B. All crew are confirmed safe inside the citadel with two-way communication
- C. The ship is in port
- D. The pirates have taken control of the bridge with crew present
23. What is a 'safe muster point' in BMP guidance?
- A. The open deck aft
- B. The gangway
- C. A protected internal area where crew gather during a suspicious approach, before deciding to retreat to the citadel
- D. The lifeboat embarkation station
24. Why should crew keep away from the bridge wings and open decks during an attack?
- A. To allow pirates to board freely
- B. Open decks must be kept clear for cargo work
- C. Pirates often fire weapons at the bridge and accommodation to force the ship to stop
- D. It is too windy on deck
25. Which of the following is an implication of a successful piracy attack for the crew?
- A. Immediate repatriation with bonus pay
- B. Possible injury, long captivity, psychological trauma and loss of contact with families
- C. Automatic promotion
- D. Exemption from all future sea service
26. Individuals react in different ways during a piracy attack. The best way to reduce panic among crew is:
- A. Avoiding discussion of the risk
- B. Leaving decisions to each individual
- C. Keeping the plans secret from junior crew
- D. Regular briefings and realistic drills so everyone knows their role
27. In March 2024 the Indian Navy freed the bulk carrier MV Ruen and its crew from Somali pirates. This case illustrates that:
- A. Navies never intervene in hijacks
- B. Somali piracy ended permanently in 2012
- C. Piracy off Somalia can resurge and long-held vessels may be used as motherships
- D. Merchant ships no longer need BMP measures
28. While the ship is under attack, the SSAS should be activated to:
- A. Covertly alert the competent authority ashore that the ship's security is under threat
- B. Sound a loud alarm to frighten the pirates
- C. Automatically stop the main engine
- D. Broadcast a mayday on VHF
29. In BMP guidance, the use of fire hoses or water cannon during an attack is intended to:
- A. Extinguish pirate boats' engines automatically
- B. Signal surrender
- C. Make it difficult for pirates to approach and climb on board
- D. Replace the need for a citadel
30. If a ship's crew is in the citadel and pirates are on board, the crew should:
- A. Open the citadel door when pirates knock
- B. Come out after a few minutes to check the situation
- C. Turn off all communication to remain hidden
- D. Remain inside and maintain communication with naval forces or the company until told it is safe
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