Skip to content
DG Exit Exam
Home
Answer Key

STSDSD exit exam questions and answers — Set 5

Set 5 of the Security Training for Seafarers with Designated Security Duties (STSDSD) exit exam bank — 30 of 154 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

Bank last rebuilt .

Practise these STSDSD questions STSDSD mock exit exam, 30 marks STSDSD exit exam sets and syllabus

30 of 30 shown · Set 5

Nothing in this set matches that. Try a shorter word, or search the whole key.

Set 5 — 30 STSDSD exit exam questions with answers

1. The likelihood that an unlawful act will be committed against a particular target based on a perpetrator's intent and capability is called:

  • A. Vulnerability
  • B. Reliability index
  • C. Consequence
  • D. Threat
Answer: D — Threat
In security risk management, 'threat' is defined as the potential for an adverse event involving the combination of a perpetrator's intent and their capability to execute an attack against a target.

2. When using the X-ray scanning machine at an access point, the operator shall continuously monitor the screen for a maximum of:

  • A. 10 minutes
  • B. 120 minutes
  • C. 60 minutes
  • D. 20 minutes
Answer: D — 20 minutes
Due to the cognitive fatigue associated with analyzing X-ray imagery, operators are required to limit continuous screen monitoring to 20 minutes to maintain high levels of vigilance and accuracy in threat detection.

3. Where do we find documentation providing evidence of the Master's overriding authority regarding safety and security?

  • A. In the Ship Security Plan (SSP)
  • B. In the commercial cargo charter party agreements
  • C. In the oil record book
  • D. Inside the garbage log ledger
Answer: A — In the Ship Security Plan (SSP)
The Ship Security Plan (SSP) explicitly defines the Master's overriding authority, ensuring that the Master can take any action deemed necessary for the safety and security of the vessel, regardless of other commercial pressures.

4. All ship staff are *not* required to have a defined knowledge of:

  • A. Reporting suspicious elements to the SSO
  • B. Location of emergency alarm switches
  • C. Basic security actions during alerts
  • D. The ISPS Code in full
Answer: D — The ISPS Code in full
While crew must be aware of their security roles, they are not expected to have a comprehensive, technical understanding of the entire ISPS Code. That level of in-depth knowledge is required of the SSO and CSO.

5. What gets absolute priority on board in case of an direct conflict between safety and security parameters?

  • A. Keeping to the commercial schedule
  • B. Safety of life and the vessel
  • C. Security measures
  • D. Cargo integrity protection
Answer: B — Safety of life and the vessel
Under SOLAS Chapter XI-2, the safety of life and the vessel is the paramount concern. If security protocols conflict with immediate safety requirements, safety measures take absolute priority.

6. Areas designated as _______ in the SSP should be well marked, secured, and permit authorized entry only:

  • A. Restricted areas
  • B. Recreation spaces
  • C. Open decks
  • D. Public spaces
Answer: A — Restricted areas
Restricted areas are defined locations on the ship where security risk is high, such as the bridge or engine room. These must be clearly marked and controlled to prevent unauthorized access per the SSP.

7. What does the acronym IED stand for in maritime security?

  • A. Internal Engine Damper
  • B. International Enforcement Directive
  • C. Improvised Explosive Device
  • D. Integrated Electrical Drive
Answer: C — Improvised Explosive Device
IED stands for Improvised Explosive Device, a common term in maritime security assessments to describe non-standard explosive threats that may be encountered during ship-port operations.

8. Which part of the ISPS code is fully mandatory for all signatory flag states?

  • A. Part C
  • B. Annex VI
  • C. Part A
  • D. Part B
Answer: C — Part A
Part A of the ISPS Code contains the mandatory requirements for Contracting Governments, port authorities, and shipping companies, whereas Part B provides non-mandatory guidance for implementation.

9. The criteria used to decide on the physical search method of a group boarding the ship includes:

  • A. The distance from the nearest city center
  • B. The draft of the vessel at the berth
  • C. The number of people
  • D. The weather temperature outside
Answer: C — The number of people
When planning search protocols, the scale of the operation—such as the number of people boarding—is a critical factor in determining the required resources, time, and intensity of the search procedure.

10. The security certificate renewal audit of a maritime vessel is done once every:

  • A. 5 years
  • B. 10 years
  • C. 1 year
  • D. 3 years
Answer: A — 5 years
The International Ship Security Certificate (ISSC) is subject to an intermediate verification and is renewed following a full audit every five years, aligning with standard SOLAS certification cycles.

11. Which of the following equipment is considered a part of cyber security?

  • A. Hydraulic actuators
  • B. Portable computer
  • C. Mechanical tachometers
  • D. Centrifugal fire pumps
Answer: B — Portable computer
Cyber security concerns the protection of digital assets. Among the options, a portable computer is a key piece of IT hardware that could be a vector or target for unauthorized access, malware, or data breaches.

12. Emergency response services to a security incident do *not* standardly include:

  • A. Extinguishing a major structural fire
  • B. Shore medical evac links during hostage trauma
  • C. Armed naval backup assistance
  • D. Coast Guard tactical communication support
Answer: A — Extinguishing a major structural fire
Fires come under safety/fire-fighting codes, not standard anti-security assault metrics Fires are managed under safety frameworks

13. What percentage of baggage is required to be checked at standard Security Level 1?

  • A. 0% checked unless authorized by local police
  • B. 100% manually without exception
  • C. As per the parameters specified in the Ship Security Plan (SSP)
  • D. 50% checked by alternate lottery method
Answer: C — As per the parameters specified in the Ship Security Plan (SSP)
The exact percentage of baggage to be screened is determined by the specific requirements laid out in the Ship Security Plan (SSP), which must account for the current security level and vessel-specific risk assessment.

14. PMSCs (Private Maritime Security Companies) should require that their personnel do not use firearms against persons except in _______ or defense of others:

  • A. Clearing path ways
  • B. Warnings during routine approach
  • C. Checking identification criteria
  • D. Self-defense
Answer: D — Self-defense
The use of firearms by private security is strictly governed by the principles of necessity and proportionality, limiting their use solely to self-defense or the defense of others to prevent loss of life.

15. As per the ISPS code, a ship is required to maintain records of its past:

  • A. 5 ports of call
  • B. 10 ports of call
  • C. 15 ports of call
  • D. 20 ports of call
Answer: B — 10 ports of call
The ISPS Code mandates that vessels maintain records of the past 10 ports of call, which is essential for tracking the security history and ensuring the ship has followed appropriate security measures at every terminal.

16. The crew is required to know which of the following during an emergency?

  • A. All of the above
  • B. Being aware not to use elevators in an emergency
  • C. Location and use of emergency equipment
  • D. Casualty handling
Answer: A — All of the above
All crew members must have a foundational understanding of emergency procedures, including the location of equipment, basic casualty care, and the dangers of using elevators during emergencies, to ensure safe evacuation.

17. Which of the below spaces in a cabin are considered a most vulnerable place where hidden drugs and contrabands are discovered?

  • A. Exposed bathroom tile surfaces
  • B. Flat tabletop spaces
  • C. Hollow out moldings
  • D. Open hanging coat rack pegs
Answer: C — Hollow out moldings
Hidden storage spaces, such as behind interior moldings or in false bulkheads, are classic areas where contraband is concealed. These areas are priority targets during cabin security searches.

18. Which of the following poses an active potential security risk to the ship's networks?

  • A. Emails attempting to obtain sensitive information regarding the vessel (Phishing)
  • B. VHF channel 16 routine calls
  • C. Standard radar tuning alerts
  • D. Routine weather fax printouts
Answer: A — Emails attempting to obtain sensitive information regarding the vessel (Phishing)
Phishing emails are a primary method of cyber-attack, designed to trick personnel into revealing sensitive vessel information or credentials, which could lead to a breach of the ship's security systems.

19. Who is responsible for submitting the Ship Security Plan for official administration approval?

  • A. Third Engineer
  • B. Ship Security Officer (SSO)
  • C. Company Security Officer (CSO)
  • D. The Chief Mate
Answer: C — Company Security Officer (CSO)
The Company Security Officer (CSO) is the designated person ashore responsible for liaising with the flag state or Recognized Security Organization (RSO) to ensure the SSP meets regulatory standards and gains official approval.

20. Who addresses and deals directly with any identified structural deficiencies or non-conformities of security measures on behalf of the management?

  • A. Company Security Officer (CSO)
  • B. Junior Engineer on duty
  • C. The Supplier's Delivery Foreman
  • D. The Port Customs Clearance Team
Answer: A — Company Security Officer (CSO)
The Company Security Officer (CSO) is the bridge between the vessel and the company management, responsible for addressing non-conformities and ensuring that security infrastructure and protocols are properly maintained.

21. When doing a physical search of a package or a bag, we should look for the following:

  • A. The retail barcode design structure
  • B. Unusual electronic appliances hidden within standard spaces
  • C. Country of manufacture stamp marks
  • D. Weight labels on the exterior print
Answer: B — Unusual electronic appliances hidden within standard spaces
During a physical search, one must be vigilant for anomalies such as unusual weight, strange noises, or electronic components—like wires or sensors—hidden in packages, which may indicate the presence of illicit items or dangerous goods.

22. The Ship Security Plan (SSP) cannot be shown to any unauthorized person without the approval of:

  • A. Any crew member on watch duty
  • B. The local ship supplier foreman
  • C. The Master, SSO, or CSO
  • D. The terminal cargo operations loader
Answer: C — The Master, SSO, or CSO
The Ship Security Plan is a restricted document containing sensitive vulnerability data. Access to it is strictly controlled and limited to authorized personnel like the Master, SSO, and CSO to prevent information leakage.

23. During container loading, which of the following is required at Security Level 1?

  • A. Checking of loading as per the loading plan
  • B. Checking 100% interior contents of all sealed boxes
  • C. Discharging all other auxiliary fuel oils
  • D. Complete lockdown of all steering machinery positions
Answer: A — Checking of loading as per the loading plan
At Security Level 1, verifying the cargo against the loading plan is the standard security measure. This ensures the cargo matches the documentation and helps prevent the unauthorized loading of dangerous or illicit items.

24. You find a suspicious object on the deck. Which initial action will you take to safeguard life?

  • A. Move all personnel as far away from the object as possible
  • B. Submerge it in the main galley sink water tank immediately
  • C. Hit it with a wrench to check for metallic hollow signatures
  • D. Carry it manually to the captain's office deck
Answer: A — Move all personnel as far away from the object as possible
In the event of a suspicious object, the primary goal is the safety of the crew. Evacuation and cordoning off the area are the mandatory initial responses, followed by professional intervention; the object should never be touched or moved.

25. Under STCW Code Table A-VI/6-2, what is the mandatory requirement regarding regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements during Security Training Designated Duties operations?

  • A. Strict compliance with approved safety procedures and flag state regulations
  • B. Optional adherence based on vessel size
  • C. Verbal recommendation without documentation
  • D. Applicable only during drydock operations
Answer: A — Strict compliance with approved safety procedures and flag state regulations
STCW Code Table A-VI/6-2 mandates strict compliance with approved safety protocols for Security Training Designated Duties.

26. What specific safety precaution must be observed when managing regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements for Security Training Designated Duties on board?

  • A. Proceeding without informing the officer on watch
  • B. Disabling automated safety alarms to save time
  • C. Delegating tasks exclusively to untrained crew members
  • D. Conducting a thorough risk assessment and briefing all involved personnel prior to starting work
Answer: D — Conducting a thorough risk assessment and briefing all involved personnel prior to starting work
Risk assessments and pre-job briefings ensure all team members understand hazards during Security Training Designated Duties operations.

27. Which international regulation specifies the minimum standard for regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements concerning Security Training Designated Duties?

  • A. Tonnage Measurement Convention 1969
  • B. International Load Line Certificate Annex 3
  • C. Port State Control advisory note only
  • D. STCW Code Section A-VI/6-2 and relevant SOLAS/MARPOL conventions
Answer: D — STCW Code Section A-VI/6-2 and relevant SOLAS/MARPOL conventions
STCW Code Section A-VI/6-2 sets international standards for training and operational competency in Security Training Designated Duties.

28. In the event of an emergency involving regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements during Security Training Designated Duties tasks, what immediate action is required?

  • A. Attempt to resolve the incident silently without raising the alarm
  • B. Evacuate the vessel immediately without informing the bridge
  • C. Wait until the end of the watch to log the issue
  • D. Raise the alarm, notify the Officer of the Watch, and execute assigned muster list duties
Answer: D — Raise the alarm, notify the Officer of the Watch, and execute assigned muster list duties
Prompt alarm activation ensures emergency response teams can mobilize immediately.

29. How frequently must operational drills and practical checks for regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements be conducted for Security Training Designated Duties?

  • A. Annually prior to vessel drydocking
  • B. At least monthly or as mandated by SOLAS and shipboard safety management system (SMS)
  • C. Only when requested by port State control inspectors
  • D. Once every 5 years during special survey
Answer: B — At least monthly or as mandated by SOLAS and shipboard safety management system (SMS)
Regular drills maintain crew emergency readiness and satisfy SOLAS requirements.

30. What documented record must be maintained on board following completion of tasks related to regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements in Security Training Designated Duties?

  • A. Unsigned note on the shipboard notice board
  • B. Entry in the official Deck or Engine Logbook recording date, time, and operational parameters
  • C. Verbal update to port agent without logging
  • D. No written record is required
Answer: B — Entry in the official Deck or Engine Logbook recording date, time, and operational parameters
Official logbook entries provide mandatory legal documentation of shipboard safety tasks.

Printing this? Use your browser's Print (Ctrl/⌘ + P) — the buttons, the search box and the site chrome drop out and the questions run on as plain text, so a set fits a few pages. Filter to one set first if you only want that set on paper.

Practise these STSDSD questions as a timed paper All 154 STSDSD questions and answers STSDSD exit exam sets and syllabus All 27 STCW exit exam courses