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STSDSD exit exam questions and answers — Set 6 — Security Training for Seafarers with Designated Security Duties

Set 6 of the Security Training for Seafarers with Designated Security Duties (STSDSD) exit exam bank — 30 of 481 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

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Set 6 — 30 STSDSD exit exam questions with answers

1. A ship security drill can be conducted:

  • A. By phone call
  • B. By email
  • C. As a circular to all
  • D. In combination with other exercises such as search and rescue
Answer: D — In combination with other exercises such as search and rescue
ISPS Code Part B/13.7 allows security exercises and drills to be combined with other exercises such as search and rescue or emergency response, provided the security elements are effectively tested.

2. Under the ISPS Code, which term describes the current degree of security threat to a country and its coastal region, including ships visiting that country?

  • A. Exchange rate
  • B. GDP
  • C. Daily news channels
  • D. Security levels
Answer: D — Security levels
The ISPS Code defines security levels 1, 2 and 3, set by Contracting Governments to reflect the degree of risk that a security incident will be attempted or occur, applying to ships and port facilities.

3. Why is it advised that crew retreat to the citadel (safe room) during a pirate attack?

  • A. To avoid being captured by the pirates and prevent them taking control of the ship
  • B. To take some rest before the pirates take over
  • C. To avoid working after the pirates take over
  • D. To protest against the pirate attack
Answer: A — To avoid being captured by the pirates and prevent them taking control of the ship
Best Management Practices advise all crew to retreat to a pre-prepared citadel from which propulsion and communications can be controlled. Pirates who cannot seize the crew cannot easily take control of the ship, and naval forces can intervene.

4. When the Ship Security Alert System (SSAS) is activated:

  • A. A covert alert is sent ashore to the competent authority without raising any alarm on board or on other ships
  • B. An audible alarm sounds throughout own ship
  • C. An alarm sounds on all ships in the vicinity
  • D. A distress message is broadcast on VHF channel 16
Answer: A — A covert alert is sent ashore to the competent authority without raising any alarm on board or on other ships
SOLAS XI-2/6 requires the SSAS to send a ship-to-shore security alert to the competent authority designated by the Administration, identifying the ship and its position, without sending the alert to other ships or raising any alarm on board.

5. What does the Continuous Synopsis Record (CSR) contain?

  • A. The safety record of the ship
  • B. The security record of the ship
  • C. The history of the ship
  • D. The sailing record of the ship
Answer: C — The history of the ship
Required by SOLAS XI-1/5, the CSR is an on-board record of the ship's history, including its name, flag, IMO number, registered owner, bareboat charterer, company and classification society, updated whenever a change occurs.

6. Which of the following is NOT used as an additional security measure against unauthorised boarding?

  • A. Gratings used to block companionways
  • B. Rods welded across openings such as hawse pipes
  • C. Butterfly nuts or eye pads used on watertight doors
  • D. Cargo hoses
Answer: D — Cargo hoses
Gratings, welded bars over hawse pipes and securing doors from inside are physical barriers that deny or delay access by intruders. Cargo hoses are cargo-handling equipment, not a security measure.

7. With whom does the SSO liaise in the company?

  • A. Company Security Officer
  • B. Port Facility Security Officer
  • C. Company MD
  • D. Company CEO
Answer: A — Company Security Officer
ISPS Code A/12.2 requires the Ship Security Officer to liaise with the Company Security Officer on security matters, and with the PFSO at port facilities. The CSO is the SSO's point of contact within the company.

8. Regarding security levels, a ship:

  • A. May be at a higher security level than the port facility, but never at a lower level
  • B. Must always be at a lower security level than the port facility
  • C. May choose any security level independent of the port
  • D. Must always be at security level 3 in port
Answer: A — May be at a higher security level than the port facility, but never at a lower level
Under the ISPS Code, a ship in port must comply with the port State's security level if it is higher than that set by the flag State. A ship may operate at a higher level than the port facility, but not lower.

9. What should be done with deficiencies identified during a security drill?

  • A. Inform the CSO and wait for his advice
  • B. Inform the Master, who advises what to do
  • C. Inform the Chief Officer, who makes the corrections
  • D. Discuss them, identify corrective actions, implement them and record them
Answer: D — Discuss them, identify corrective actions, implement them and record them
Drills are intended to identify security-related deficiencies. These should be debriefed, corrective actions identified and implemented, and the drill and actions recorded as required by ISPS A/10 and the SSP.

10. An automatic intrusion detection device may be provided on a vessel for:

  • A. Monitoring the gangway
  • B. Monitoring access to restricted areas
  • C. Monitoring the Master's room
  • D. Monitoring the mess room
Answer: B — Monitoring access to restricted areas
ISPS Code Part B suggests restricted areas such as the bridge, machinery spaces and steering gear may be protected by intrusion detection devices which alert the watch if unauthorised access is attempted.

11. The CSO shall have knowledge of, and have received training in:

  • A. Security-relevant international conventions, codes and recommendations
  • B. Safety-relevant international conventions, codes and recommendations
  • C. MARPOL-relevant conventions, codes and recommendations
  • D. STCW-relevant conventions, codes and recommendations
Answer: A — Security-relevant international conventions, codes and recommendations
ISPS Code B/13.1 lists the knowledge required of a CSO, starting with security administration and relevant international conventions, codes and recommendations, along with legislation, threat patterns and security equipment.

12. One of the functional requirements of the ISPS Code that requires training, drills and exercises is to ensure:

  • A. Familiarity with security plans and procedures
  • B. Familiarity with cargo handling procedures
  • C. Compliance with MARPOL discharge criteria
  • D. Competence in celestial navigation
Answer: A — Familiarity with security plans and procedures
Training, drills and exercises under the ISPS Code ensure that ship and port personnel are familiar with security plans and procedures and can respond effectively to security threats at each security level.

13. The Ship Security Plan is:

  • A. A controlled confidential document protected from unauthorised access or disclosure
  • B. A public document to be displayed in the crew mess
  • C. A document to be handed to any port State inspector on request
  • D. A voluntary guidance booklet
Answer: A — A controlled confidential document protected from unauthorised access or disclosure
ISPS Code A/9.7 requires the SSP to be protected from unauthorised access or disclosure. PSC officers may not normally inspect its confidential parts without the consent of the flag State or Master.

14. The locations of the SSAS activation points should be known to:

  • A. The Master, SSO and a limited number of designated persons
  • B. All crew members
  • C. All visitors and shore staff
  • D. The port facility personnel
Answer: A — The Master, SSO and a limited number of designated persons
SOLAS XI-2/6 requires SSAS activation points to be designed to prevent inadvertent activation, and the system must be covert. Their location is confidential and known only to the Master, SSO and selected senior officers.

15. Under the ISPS Code, the initial verification of a ship is carried out:

  • A. Before the ship is put in service or before the ISSC is issued for the first time
  • B. Only after the first port State control inspection
  • C. Within 5 years of the ship being put in service
  • D. Only if requested by the charterer
Answer: A — Before the ship is put in service or before the ISSC is issued for the first time
ISPS Code A/19.1.1 requires an initial verification before the ship is put in service or before the ISSC is issued for the first time, covering the security system, equipment and approved SSP.

16. The ISPS Code does NOT apply to:

  • A. Warships, naval auxiliaries and government ships used only on non-commercial service
  • B. Passenger ships on international voyages
  • C. Cargo ships of 500 GT and upwards on international voyages
  • D. Mobile offshore drilling units
Answer: A — Warships, naval auxiliaries and government ships used only on non-commercial service
SOLAS XI-2/2 and ISPS A/3.3 exclude warships, naval auxiliaries and other ships owned or operated by a Contracting Government and used only on government non-commercial service. It applies to passenger ships, cargo ships of 500 GT and over, and MODUs on international voyages.

17. When setting the security level, who determines the degree to which threat information is credible, specific or imminent?

  • A. The Contracting Government
  • B. The Company
  • C. The Master
  • D. The classification society
Answer: A — The Contracting Government
Under ISPS Code A/4 and B/4, Contracting Governments set security levels considering how credible, corroborated, specific or imminent the threat information is, and the potential consequences of an incident.

18. Under the ISPS Code, the Administration may entrust the verification of ships to:

  • A. A Recognized Security Organization
  • B. The ship's own SSO
  • C. The ship's charterer
  • D. The port facility security officer
Answer: A — A Recognized Security Organization
ISPS Code A/19.1.2 permits the Administration to entrust verifications to a Recognized Security Organization, although approval and issuing of the ISSC remain under its responsibility.

19. Which of the following are vulnerable places in companionways where drugs and contraband may be hidden?

  • A. Behind or inside water coolers
  • B. Inside fire extinguishers
  • C. In ducts
  • D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
During ship searches, any space that can be opened or accessed easily, such as water coolers, fire extinguisher bodies and ventilation ducts, may be used to conceal drugs and contraband and should be checked.

20. What is assessed in a security drill?

  • A. The effectiveness of the drill
  • B. The mistakes made during the drill
  • C. The response of personnel to the scenario
  • D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
A security drill assesses how effective the response was, identifies mistakes and deficiencies, and tests whether personnel respond correctly to the security scenario, so that the SSP and training can be improved.

21. Under the ISPS Code, is the Company Security Officer required to visit company ships at every port?

  • A. No, the ISPS Code contains no such requirement
  • B. Yes, at every port of call
  • C. Yes, but only at ports at security level 2
  • D. Yes, but only at ports outside the flag state
Answer: A — No, the ISPS Code contains no such requirement
ISPS Code A/11 lists the CSO's duties, such as arranging the SSA, SSP development, audits and training. Visiting the ship at every port is not one of them; the CSO is a shore-based company officer who liaises with the SSO.

22. STSDSD stands for:

  • A. Safety Training for Seafarers with Designated Safety Duties
  • B. Safety Training for Seafarers with Designated Security Duties
  • C. Security Training for Seafarers with Designated Security Duties
  • D. Security Training for Seafarers with Designated Safety Duties
Answer: C — Security Training for Seafarers with Designated Security Duties
STSDSD is the Security Training for Seafarers with Designated Security Duties required by STCW Regulation VI/6 and Section A-VI/6 for crew members assigned security duties under the ship security plan.

23. What is an operational limitation of security equipment such as a radio?

  • A. The radio can be too loud
  • B. The radio volume can be too low
  • C. The radio signal can be jammed
  • D. None of the above
Answer: C — The radio signal can be jammed
Radio communication can be disrupted by deliberate jamming, interference or poor signal coverage, which may leave the security team unable to communicate. Knowing equipment limitations is part of STSDSD competence in operating security equipment.

24. How frequently should security equipment be calibrated?

  • A. Every month
  • B. Every three months
  • C. As per the manufacturer's instructions
  • D. Only on breakdown
Answer: C — As per the manufacturer's instructions
ISPS Code A/12.2.10 requires the SSO to ensure security equipment is properly operated, tested, calibrated and maintained. Calibration intervals and methods are set by the manufacturer's instructions, recorded in the ship's maintenance system.

25. Which of the following is NOT normally treated as Security Sensitive Information (SSI)?

  • A. The ship security programme
  • B. Technical details of the screening equipment
  • C. The ship's cargo plan
  • D. The location of the SSAS activation points
Answer: C — The ship's cargo plan
Security Sensitive Information is information that could help someone defeat the ship's security system, such as SSP details, equipment specifications and SSAS activation locations. The cargo plan is a commercial operational document shared with terminals and agents.

26. Separate areas for embarking and disembarking persons are typically provided:

  • A. On passenger ships
  • B. On gas carriers
  • C. On chemical tankers
  • D. Not on any ship
Answer: A — On passenger ships
ISPS Code Part B guidance (B/9) recommends segregating embarking passengers and their baggage from disembarking passengers on passenger ships, so that checked persons do not mix with unchecked persons.

27. If the ship is at a higher security level than the port facility:

  • A. The ship will lower its security level to match the port
  • B. The ship will maintain its security level and may request a Declaration of Security
  • C. The ship will ask the CSO what to do
  • D. The ship will ask the flag state what to do
Answer: B — The ship will maintain its security level and may request a Declaration of Security
A ship may never operate at a lower security level than that set by its Administration. Under ISPS Code A/5.2 a ship may request a Declaration of Security when it is operating at a higher security level than the port facility.

28. Which of the following elements is tested during a ship-shore security exercise?

  • A. The availability of security resources
  • B. The availability of safety resources
  • C. The availability of sailing resources
  • D. The availability of social resources
Answer: A — The availability of security resources
ISPS Code B/13.7 says security exercises may be full scale, tabletop or combined and should test communications, coordination, resource availability and response. The resources being tested are those used for security.

29. To whom shall the CSO send a proposed amendment to the SSP for approval?

  • A. The flag state Administration
  • B. The port state
  • C. The master
  • D. The owners
Answer: A — The flag state Administration
Under ISPS Code A/9.4 and A/9.5 the SSP and any amendments to the elements of the approved plan must be approved by the Administration, or a Recognized Security Organization acting on its behalf, before implementation.

30. What is an operational limitation of security equipment such as a light bulb?

  • A. The bulb can be too big
  • B. The bulb can be too small
  • C. The bulb can fuse or break
  • D. None of the above
Answer: C — The bulb can fuse or break
Security lighting depends on bulbs that can fuse, break or be deliberately damaged, leaving dark areas around the ship. Regular checks and spare bulbs are needed to keep lighting effective at all security levels.

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