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FPFF exit exam questions and answers — Set 12 — Fire Prevention & Fire Fighting

Set 12 of the Fire Prevention & Fire Fighting (FPFF) exit exam bank — 30 of 656 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

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Set 12 — 30 FPFF exit exam questions with answers

1. All portable fire extinguishers must be capable of being ____.

  • A. Carried by hand to a fire
  • B. Carried or rolled to a fire
  • C. Recharged in the field
  • D. Used on Class B fires
Answer: A — Carried by hand to a fire
By definition a portable extinguisher is one that can be carried by hand; the FSS Code limits its total mass to not more than 23 kg. Larger wheeled units are classed as semi-portable.

2. Fire pumps may be used for other purposes provided that one pump is ____.

  • A. On line to the fire main
  • B. Kept available for use on the fire main at all times
  • C. Capable of being connected to the fire main
  • D. Rated at or above 125 psi
Answer: B — Kept available for use on the fire main at all times
SOLAS II-2/10 permits fire pumps to be used for other services such as ballast or general service, provided at least one fire pump is always kept available for immediate use on the fire main.

3. Fire hoses should always be stowed at the fire hydrant in a manner which will allow ____.

  • A. All sections to be quickly connected
  • B. The nozzle end to be run out to the fire
  • C. All sections to be quickly drained
  • D. The nozzle and fittings to be easily and quickly inspected
Answer: B — The nozzle end to be run out to the fire
Hoses are kept connected or ready at the hydrant, faked or rolled so that the nozzle end can be run out towards the fire without kinking, allowing water to be applied in the shortest possible time.

4. Where must a duplicate set of fire control plans be located?

  • A. Near the gangway, in a prominently marked weathertight enclosure outside the deckhouse
  • B. In the engine room
  • C. In the crew mess
  • D. In the Chief Mate's office
Answer: A — Near the gangway, in a prominently marked weathertight enclosure outside the deckhouse
SOLAS II-2/15 requires a duplicate set of fire control plans to be kept permanently in a prominently marked weathertight enclosure outside the deckhouse, normally near the gangway, for the assistance of shore-side fire-fighting personnel.

5. A vessel's fire control plan shall be ____.

  • A. Posted every 150 feet along the most continuous deck
  • B. Permanently exhibited for the guidance of the ship's officers
  • C. Given to each crew member in booklet form
  • D. Translated into English, French and Spanish
Answer: B — Permanently exhibited for the guidance of the ship's officers
SOLAS II-2/15 requires general arrangement fire control plans to be permanently exhibited for the guidance of the ship's officers, showing fire stations, fire divisions, detection and extinguishing systems, ventilation controls and means of access.

6. The muster list shows each crew member's muster station, duties during abandonment, basic instructions and ____.

  • A. All emergency signals
  • B. Instructions for lowering the survival craft
  • C. The time each weekly drill will be held
  • D. The work schedule
Answer: A — All emergency signals
SOLAS III/8 and III/37 require the muster list to specify the general emergency alarm and other emergency signals, the action to be taken by crew and passengers when they sound, and each person's muster station and duties.

7. A fireman's outfit carried on board cargo vessels must include a ____.

  • A. Canister-type gas mask
  • B. Fresh-air hose breathing apparatus
  • C. Self-contained breathing apparatus
  • D. Combustible gas indicator
Answer: C — Self-contained breathing apparatus
Under SOLAS II-2/10 and the FSS Code a fireman's outfit comprises protective clothing, boots, helmet, safety lamp, axe and a self-contained compressed air breathing apparatus with fireproof lifeline. Canister masks give no protection in oxygen-deficient smoke.

8. The international shore connection ____.

  • A. Allows hook-up of fire-fighting water from shore facilities or another ship
  • B. Satisfies pollution prevention requirements
  • C. Allows emergency use of the fire main for deballasting
  • D. Permits discharge of waste oil to shore facilities
Answer: A — Allows hook-up of fire-fighting water from shore facilities or another ship
The international shore connection is a standard flange, defined in the FSS Code, that lets a ship's fire main be connected to a shore supply or another vessel with different hose couplings. SOLAS requires it on ships of 500 GT and above.

9. If ignited, which material would produce a Class B fire?

  • A. Magnesium
  • B. Paper
  • C. Wood
  • D. Diesel oil
Answer: D — Diesel oil
Class B fires involve flammable liquids such as diesel, fuel oil, lubricating oil and paints. Paper and wood are Class A ordinary combustibles, and magnesium is a Class D combustible metal.

10. The extinguishing agent most effective for combating wood fires is ____.

  • A. Water
  • B. Carbon dioxide
  • C. Foam
  • D. Dry chemical
Answer: A — Water
Wood is a Class A material that can smoulder deep inside. Water penetrates and cools the fuel below its ignition temperature, preventing re-ignition, whereas smothering agents may leave deep-seated embers burning.

11. When used to fight fire, carbon dioxide ____.

  • A. Is effective if used promptly on an oil fire
  • B. Has a greater cooling effect than water
  • C. Is lighter than air
  • D. Is harmless to cargo and crew
Answer: A — Is effective if used promptly on an oil fire
CO2 smothers a fire by displacing oxygen and is effective on small oil fires if applied quickly. It is heavier than air, has little cooling effect compared with water, and is an asphyxiant dangerous to personnel.

12. Carbon dioxide as a fire-fighting agent has which advantage over other agents?

  • A. It causes minimal damage
  • B. It is safer for personnel
  • C. It is cheaper
  • D. It is most effective on a per unit basis
Answer: A — It causes minimal damage
CO2 is a clean gas that leaves no residue, does not conduct electricity and does not damage machinery, electronics or cargo. It is not safer for personnel, since it can cause asphyxiation in enclosed spaces.

13. You have carbon tetrachloride as part of the cargo. If a fire breaks out in the general area, what is the major danger from the carbon tetrachloride?

  • A. It will explode if exposed to a flame
  • B. Phosgene gas may be formed if it comes into contact with hot metal
  • C. It will burn rapidly once ignited
  • D. Water cannot be used to fight the fire because it reacts with the carbon tetrachloride
Answer: B — Phosgene gas may be formed if it comes into contact with hot metal
Carbon tetrachloride is non-flammable, but when heated by fire or hot surfaces it decomposes to produce highly toxic phosgene and hydrogen chloride gases. This is why it is no longer used as an extinguishing agent.

14. Radiation can cause a fire to spread by ____.

  • A. Transmitting the heat of a fire through the ship's metal
  • B. Burning liquids flowing into another space
  • C. Heated gases flowing through ventilation systems
  • D. The transfer of heat across an unobstructed space
Answer: D — The transfer of heat across an unobstructed space
Radiation is heat transfer by electromagnetic waves across open space without any medium, igniting nearby materials. Heat through steel is conduction, movement of hot gases is convection, and flowing burning liquid is direct flame spread.

15. You are on watch at night in port and discover a fire in No. 1 hatch. Which action should you take FIRST?

  • A. Advise the Chief Mate and Master
  • B. Release carbon dioxide into the hatch
  • C. Sound the general alarm
  • D. Lead a fire hose to the hatch
Answer: C — Sound the general alarm
Raising the alarm first brings the whole crew to their fire stations and starts the emergency organisation. Fighting the fire alone or releasing CO2 before the space is checked and sealed could waste time or endanger personnel.

16. The most common and widely used cooling agent for fighting fires on merchant vessels is ____.

  • A. Carbon dioxide
  • B. Flue gas
  • C. Water
  • D. Steam smothering
Answer: C — Water
Water is plentiful at sea, cheap, and has the greatest cooling capacity of all agents because of its high specific and latent heat. It is supplied through the fire main, hydrants, sprinklers and drenching systems.

17. The locker or space containing the self-contained breathing apparatus must be ____.

  • A. Located close to the bridge
  • B. Equipped with battery-powered emergency lighting
  • C. Marked SELF-CONTAINED BREATHING APPARATUS
  • D. Kept locked at all times with the key held by the Master
Answer: C — Marked SELF-CONTAINED BREATHING APPARATUS
Breathing apparatus must be stowed where it is readily accessible and clearly marked so crew can find it quickly in an emergency. Locking it away would cause dangerous delay, and its location is shown on the fire control plan.

18. Which statement is TRUE concerning the application of foam on an oil fire?

  • A. It cools the surface of the liquid
  • B. It gives protection to fire-fighting personnel against the heat of the fire
  • C. It forms a smothering blanket on the surface of the oil
  • D. It should be applied at the same time as a solid stream of water
Answer: C — It forms a smothering blanket on the surface of the oil
Foam floats on the burning oil and forms a blanket that excludes oxygen and suppresses flammable vapours. Applying a solid water jet at the same time would break the foam blanket and spread the burning oil.

19. Why should you wear a self-contained breathing apparatus before entering the engine room after the fixed CO2 system has been discharged to combat a major fire?

  • A. Because carbon dioxide dilutes the oxygen concentration in the atmosphere and may cause asphyxiation
  • B. Because carbon dioxide breaks down in a fire into carbon monoxide which may cause blood poisoning
  • C. Because carbon dioxide becomes highly toxic at high temperatures and quickly incapacitates a person
  • D. It is unnecessary, as carbon dioxide is not poisonous and is a harmless gas
Answer: A — Because carbon dioxide dilutes the oxygen concentration in the atmosphere and may cause asphyxiation
A total-flooding CO2 discharge reduces the oxygen in the space far below the level needed to sustain life. Anyone entering without SCBA would be asphyxiated, and the space also contains smoke and toxic combustion products.

20. Which of the following actions should be taken by the engineer on watch when the general alarm is sounded continuously for 10 seconds?

  • A. Engine room ventilation should be started
  • B. Main engines should be secured
  • C. The fire pump should be started
  • D. The fixed CO2 system should be activated
Answer: C — The fire pump should be started
A continuous sounding of the alarm signals fire. The engine room watch starts the fire pump and pressurises the fire main so hoses can be used immediately; the propulsion plant stays available unless the bridge orders otherwise.

21. To extinguish an electrical fire, your FIRST action should be to ____.

  • A. Apply low-velocity fog
  • B. Secure the power
  • C. Completely discharge a 15 lb (6.8 kg) CO2 extinguisher
  • D. Apply mechanical or chemical foam
Answer: B — Secure the power
Isolating the electrical supply removes the shock hazard and the source of ignition, often turning the fire into an ordinary Class A or B fire. A non-conducting agent such as CO2 or dry powder is then used.

22. Which statement describes the primary process by which fires are extinguished by dry chemical?

  • A. The stream of dry chemical powder cools the fire
  • B. The dry chemical powder interrupts the chain reaction of combustion
  • C. The powder forms a solid coating over the surface
  • D. The dry chemical smothers the fire
Answer: B — The dry chemical powder interrupts the chain reaction of combustion
Dry chemical powders such as sodium or potassium bicarbonate work mainly by chemically interrupting the free-radical chain reaction in the flame. They have little cooling effect and only a minor smothering action.

23. One of the main concerns when fighting a galley fire is ____.

  • A. Contamination of food with the extinguishing agent
  • B. Spreading of fire through the engineering spaces
  • C. The loss of stability
  • D. The ignition of grease in the range hood exhaust duct
Answer: D — The ignition of grease in the range hood exhaust duct
Grease deposits build up in galley range exhaust ducts and can ignite, carrying fire through the ducting to other parts of the accommodation. SOLAS II-2/9 therefore requires grease traps, fire dampers and fixed extinguishing means in galley range ducts.

24. Operation of the release control valve on a fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system will ____.

  • A. Release CO2 to the protected space
  • B. Secure all mechanical ventilation in the protected space
  • C. Sound the general alarm signal for a fire
  • D. Sound an alarm in the ballast control room
Answer: A — Release CO2 to the protected space
The release control valve admits CO2 from the cylinder bank to the distribution pipework of the selected space. A separate pre-discharge alarm must sound and ventilation must be stopped before the gas is released, as required by the FSS Code.

25. A continuous blast of the whistle for not less than 10 seconds, supplemented by continuous ringing of the general alarm bells for not less than 10 seconds, indicates ____.

  • A. Fire
  • B. Collision
  • C. Man overboard
  • D. Flooded compartment
Answer: A — Fire
Under U.S. Coast Guard station bill requirements, a continuous blast of the whistle and continuous ringing of the general alarm for at least 10 seconds is the fire and emergency signal. Ship-specific signals are shown on the muster list.

26. After extinguishing a fire with CO2, it is advisable to ____.

  • A. Use all the CO2 available to cool the surrounding area
  • B. Stand by with water or other extinguishing agents in case of re-ignition
  • C. Immediately ventilate the space thoroughly
  • D. Jettison all burning materials
Answer: B — Stand by with water or other extinguishing agents in case of re-ignition
CO2 has little cooling effect, so hot materials may re-ignite when air is readmitted. The space is kept closed to cool and boundary cooling continues, with charged hoses and other agents standing by before it is opened and ventilated.

27. The fixed fire extinguishing system used in container ship cargo holds will normally be ____.

  • A. Foam
  • B. Water
  • C. Dry chemical powder
  • D. CO2
Answer: D — CO2
Enclosed cargo holds on container ships are normally protected by a fixed CO2 total-flooding system under SOLAS II-2/10.7, since gas penetrates between stacked containers and causes no water damage to cargo.

28. To fight a large Class A fire in a closed compartment, the nozzleman should open a door just enough to insert the hose nozzle and initially ____.

  • A. Sweep a straight stream around the compartment
  • B. Hold the nozzle steady applying a straight stream where he suspects the source of the fire
  • C. Sweep a fog stream around the compartment
  • D. Hold the nozzle steady and direct a fog stream where he suspects the fire
Answer: C — Sweep a fog stream around the compartment
Sweeping a fog pattern through the hot upper layers absorbs heat rapidly, turns to steam that smothers the fire and cools the space, reducing the risk of flashover before the team enters to attack the seat of the fire.

29. What must be located on the discharge side of the pump in a fire main system?

  • A. Pressure gauge
  • B. Strainer
  • C. Reduction valve
  • D. International shore connection
Answer: A — Pressure gauge
A pressure gauge on the fire pump discharge shows that the pump is delivering water at the required pressure to the fire main. A strainer is fitted on the suction side, and the shore connection is a separate fitting on deck.

30. The success of an indirect attack on a fire depends on the ____.

  • A. Size of the fire when initially observed
  • B. Complete containment of the fire
  • C. Cooling ability of the fire-fighting agent
  • D. Class of the fire
Answer: B — Complete containment of the fire
In an indirect attack, water fog or gas is introduced into a closed space and the steam or gas does the work. It succeeds only if the space is fully contained, with openings and ventilation closed so the smothering atmosphere is retained.

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