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DG Exit Exam
Answer Key

FPFF exit exam questions and answers — Set 13 — Fire Prevention & Fire Fighting

Set 13 of the Fire Prevention & Fire Fighting (FPFF) exit exam bank — 30 of 656 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

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Set 13 — 30 FPFF exit exam questions with answers

1. In fighting a fire in a fuel tank, the FIRST action you should attempt is to ____.

  • A. Secure all sources of fresh air to the tank
  • B. Begin transferring the fuel to other tanks
  • C. Top off the tank to force out all vapours
  • D. Station someone at the fixed CO2 release controls
Answer: A — Secure all sources of fresh air to the tank
Closing vents, sounding pipes and ventilation to the tank starves the fire of oxygen. Transferring fuel would draw in air and could spread fire, and topping off the tank increases the fuel available.

2. Blocking open or removing fire dampers can cause ____.

  • A. Fixed foam systems to be ineffective
  • B. Faster cooling of the fire
  • C. The accumulation of explosive gases
  • D. The fire to spread through the ventilation system
Answer: D — The fire to spread through the ventilation system
Fire dampers close automatically or manually to stop fire, heat and smoke passing through ventilation ducts that penetrate fire divisions. If wedged open or removed, ducts become a path for fire to spread to other spaces.

3. Which extinguishing agent is best for use on electrical fires?

  • A. Foam
  • B. CO2
  • C. Dry chemical
  • D. Water fog
Answer: B — CO2
CO2 is non-conducting, leaves no residue and does not damage electrical equipment, making it the preferred agent for live electrical fires. Dry powder is also non-conducting but leaves a corrosive residue, while foam and water conduct electricity.

4. The straight stream capability of an all-purpose nozzle is used in fighting a Class A fire to ____.

  • A. Shield fire fighters from radiant heat
  • B. Break up burning material
  • C. Get the most water possible on the fire
  • D. Drive heat and smoke ahead of the fire fighters
Answer: B — Break up burning material
A solid or straight stream has reach and force to penetrate and break apart burning Class A material such as bales or stacked wood, exposing deep-seated fire. Fog patterns are used for shielding and for driving heat and smoke.

5. Which of the listed fire extinguishing agents would be incorrect for direct use on a gasoline or oil fire?

  • A. A solid stream of water
  • B. Low-velocity water fog
  • C. High-velocity water fog
  • D. Mechanical fire-fighting foam
Answer: A — A solid stream of water
A solid jet of water plunges into the burning liquid, sinks, and splashes and spreads the burning oil, enlarging the fire. Water fog can cool and smother, and foam blankets the surface to exclude oxygen.

6. When a rescuer discovers a burn victim in the vicinity of electrical equipment or wiring, his first step is to ____.

  • A. Flush water over any burned area of the patient
  • B. Apply ointment to the burned areas
  • C. Shut down electrical power in the area
  • D. Remove the patient from the vicinity of the live electrical equipment
Answer: C — Shut down electrical power in the area
The rescuer must not become a second casualty. Isolating the power first removes the shock hazard; touching a victim still in contact with a live conductor could electrocute the rescuer. Burns are cooled only after the scene is safe.

7. Accommodation bulkheads are classified as ____.

  • A. A and B class
  • B. A, B and C class
  • C. A, B, C and D class
  • D. A class only
Answer: B — A, B and C class
SOLAS II-2 defines three classes of fire division: A class steel divisions, B class divisions of approved non-combustible material, and C class divisions of non-combustible material. Accommodation areas use combinations of A, B and C class bulkheads.

8. When fighting a fire on deck with foam, you should ____.

  • A. Play the foam stream directly onto the burning oil
  • B. Play the foam stream off nearby vertical structures
  • C. Use the foam only on flowing liquids
  • D. Play the foam stream onto the base of the fire with a whirling motion
Answer: B — Play the foam stream off nearby vertical structures
Foam should flow gently onto the burning surface to form a blanket. Bouncing it off a bulkhead or other vertical structure lets it run down and spread over the oil without plunging in and splashing the burning liquid.

9. When fighting a fire in a space containing IMO Class 1 hazardous cargo, the most effective firefighting procedure is to ____.

  • A. Shut down the ventilation and exclude all air to smother the fire
  • B. Use water from fire hoses or a sprinkler system
  • C. Activate the fixed CO2 firefighting system
  • D. Use high-expansion foam
Answer: B — Use water from fire hoses or a sprinkler system
Class 1 explosives often contain their own oxygen supply, so smothering or gas flooding is ineffective. The IMDG Code EmS guidance for explosives is to use copious quantities of water to cool the cargo and prevent mass detonation.

10. When fighting a fire on a bulkhead using a portable carbon dioxide extinguisher, the discharge should be directed at the ____.

  • A. Base of the flames, moving the horn from side to side, following the flames upward as they diminish
  • B. Top of the flaming area, moving the horn from side to side, following the flames downward as they diminish
  • C. Center of the flaming area, moving the horn vertically from top to bottom
  • D. Bottom of the flaming area, moving the horn vertically to the top following the flames upward as they diminish
Answer: A — Base of the flames, moving the horn from side to side, following the flames upward as they diminish
With a portable CO2 extinguisher the horn is aimed at the base of the flames and swept side to side, working upward as the fire is knocked down, so the gas blankets the fuel surface where combustion is taking place.

11. Which of the following statements describes how the main bank of CO2 bottles is released into an engine room from most fixed CO2 fire extinguishing systems?

  • A. Manually releasing the bottles in groups of four
  • B. CO2 pressure from the pilot cylinders
  • C. Steel wire trigger lines provided to all bottles in the main bank
  • D. Remote pull cables provided to each group of four bottles in the main bank
Answer: B — CO2 pressure from the pilot cylinders
In most fixed high-pressure CO2 systems the main bank is opened by gas pressure from pilot cylinders. Operating the release control discharges the pilot cylinders, whose pressure actuates the valve heads on all main bank cylinders simultaneously.

12. The BC Code has been replaced by the ____ Code.

  • A. IMDG
  • B. IMSBC
  • C. BLU
  • D. Grain
Answer: B — IMSBC
The BC Code (Code of Safe Practice for Solid Bulk Cargoes) was superseded by the International Maritime Solid Bulk Cargoes (IMSBC) Code, made mandatory under SOLAS Chapter VI from 1 January 2011.

13. The FIRST course of action in fighting a fire in a cargo or fuel oil tank is to ____.

  • A. Secure all openings to the tank
  • B. Discharge an initial charge of CO2 with a hand portable extinguisher
  • C. Direct a fire hose into the tank and energize the fire main
  • D. Spray the tank boundaries with a fire hose to promote cooling
Answer: A — Secure all openings to the tank
Securing all openings to a burning cargo or fuel oil tank cuts off the air supply and limits spread of fire and vapour. This is done first, before applying any extinguishing agent or boundary cooling.

14. The use of which type of fire extinguishing agent involves covering the burning surface by deflecting the agent from a bulkhead to avoid undue agitation?

  • A. Foam
  • B. Dry chemical
  • C. Carbon dioxide
  • D. Halon 1301
Answer: A — Foam
Foam should be applied gently so that it flows over the burning liquid surface. Deflecting the stream off a bulkhead or other vertical surface avoids plunging into the liquid, which would agitate it and break the foam blanket.

15. The BEST method of applying foam to a fire is to ____.

  • A. Spray directly on the base of the fire
  • B. Flow the foam down a nearby vertical surface
  • C. Sweep the fire with the foam
  • D. Spray directly on the surface of the fire
Answer: B — Flow the foam down a nearby vertical surface
Flowing foam down a nearby vertical surface lets it spread gently over the burning liquid as a continuous blanket. Spraying directly into the fire agitates the fuel, breaks up the foam and can spread burning liquid.

16. In cargo ships, the diameter of the fire main need only be sufficient for the discharge of ____ with two pumps simultaneously delivering through nozzles.

  • A. 145 m3/h
  • B. 140 m3/h
  • C. 14 m3/h
  • D. 135 m3/h
Answer: B — 140 m3/h
SOLAS II-2/10.2.1.3 requires the fire main diameter to suit the maximum discharge of two main fire pumps operating simultaneously, except that in cargo ships the diameter need only be sufficient for a discharge of 140 m3/h.

17. A cabinet or space containing the controls or valves for a fixed firefighting system must be ____.

  • A. Posted with instructions on the operation of the system
  • B. Ventilated and equipped with explosion-proof switches
  • C. Painted with red and black diagonal stripes
  • D. Equipped with a battery powered source of emergency lighting
Answer: A — Posted with instructions on the operation of the system
Clear operating instructions must be posted at the release cabinet or control space of a fixed fire-extinguishing system so that crew can operate it correctly and quickly under stress, as required by the FSS Code.

18. When electrical equipment is involved in a fire, the stream of dry chemical should be ____.

  • A. Aimed at the source of the flames
  • B. Fogged above the equipment
  • C. Shot off a flat surface onto the flames
  • D. Used to shield against electrical shock
Answer: A — Aimed at the source of the flames
Dry chemical powder is non-conductive and should be aimed at the base or source of the flames on electrical equipment, so the powder interrupts the combustion chain reaction where it is occurring.

19. A high-velocity fog stream can be used to drive heat and smoke ahead of firefighters in a passageway. This technique should only be used when ____.

  • A. Using a 2-1/2 inch hose
  • B. There is an outlet for the smoke and heat
  • C. The fire is totally contained by the ship's structure
  • D. At least two fog streams can be used
Answer: B — There is an outlet for the smoke and heat
Driving heat and smoke ahead with a fog stream only works if there is a vent or outlet for the displaced gases. Without one, the heat and smoke are pushed back onto the firefighters or spread to other spaces.

20. Before you activate the engine room fixed CO2 system to extinguish a serious fire, you should ____.

  • A. Start the emergency diesel
  • B. Stop the main engine
  • C. Evacuate all engine room personnel
  • D. Turn off electrical power
Answer: C — Evacuate all engine room personnel
CO2 at extinguishing concentration is lethal, so all personnel must be evacuated and accounted for before release. The FSS Code requires a pre-discharge alarm for this reason.

21. You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward part of your vessel. If possible, you should ____.

  • A. Put the vessel's stern into the wind
  • B. Abandon ship to windward
  • C. Call for assistance
  • D. Keep going at half speed
Answer: A — Put the vessel's stern into the wind
With a fire forward, putting the stern into the wind makes the relative wind blow the flames and smoke forward, away from the rest of the ship and the accommodation, and reduces the draught feeding the fire aft.

22. Which of the following statements represents the correct action to take when three crew members discover a fire?

  • A. One man reports the fire and the other two fight the fire
  • B. One man reports the fire, one fights the fire and one evacuates and secures the area
  • C. One man reports the fire, one fights the fire and one acts as a safety observer
  • D. All three fight the fire and report it after it is extinguished
Answer: A — One man reports the fire and the other two fight the fire
The alarm must be raised immediately, and the remaining crew attack the fire while it is still small. With three persons, one reports the fire and two fight it, giving the best chance of early control.

23. When discharging a portable CO2 fire extinguisher, you should NOT hold the horn because the horn ____.

  • A. Becomes extremely hot
  • B. Becomes extremely cold
  • C. Could come off in your hands
  • D. Is placed directly in the flames
Answer: B — Becomes extremely cold
Expanding CO2 cools sharply on discharge and the horn can reach temperatures low enough to cause frostbite. The extinguisher should be held by the insulated handle, never by the horn.

24. Fire and lifeboat stations are required to be listed on the ____.

  • A. Ship's articles
  • B. Manning list
  • C. Official log book
  • D. Muster List ("Station Bill")
Answer: D — Muster List ("Station Bill")
SOLAS III/8 and III/37 require the muster list to show each crew member's emergency duties and stations, including fire and abandon-ship (lifeboat) stations. It is posted at the bridge, engine room and crew accommodation.

25. In addition to the lifejackets stowed in places that are readily accessible, lifejackets must also be stowed at_____.

  • A. The mess room
  • B. The steering gear room
  • C. Each manned watch station
  • D. Each fire station
Answer: C — Each manned watch station
SOLAS III/7.2.1 requires sufficient lifejackets for persons on watch, stowed on the bridge, in the engine control room and at any other manned watch station, in addition to those readily accessible in cabins or muster areas.

26. The vessel's fire control plan is laid out on which type of plan?

  • A. General arrangement
  • B. Midship section
  • C. Subdivision
  • D. Lines
Answer: A — General arrangement
The fire control plan is drawn on the general arrangement plan, showing control stations, fire sections, detection and extinguishing systems, means of access and ventilation details for each deck, as required by SOLAS II-2/15.2.4.

27. While working in the engine room, you hear seven short blasts followed by one long blast on the ship's whistle, supplemented by the same signal on the general alarm bells. You should ____.

  • A. Start the fire pump to charge the fire main
  • B. Standby the main console and await orders from the engineer on watch
  • C. Go to your fire station
  • D. Go to your lifeboat station
Answer: D — Go to your lifeboat station
Seven or more short blasts followed by one long blast on the whistle and general alarm is the general emergency alarm under SOLAS III/6.4 and the LSA Code. All persons proceed to their muster (lifeboat) stations.

28. Facilities for connecting the international shore connection must be provided so that it can be used ____.

  • A. On each side of the vessel
  • B. As close as possible to the house
  • C. On the main deck
  • D. On each level of the accommodation space
Answer: A — On each side of the vessel
SOLAS II-2/10.2.1.7 requires that facilities be provided so that the international shore connection can be used on either side of the ship, allowing shore water supply whichever side is alongside.

29. You must ensure that lifesaving equipment is ____.

  • A. Locked up
  • B. Readily accessible for use
  • C. Inaccessible to passengers
  • D. On the topmost deck of the vessel at all times
Answer: B — Readily accessible for use
SOLAS III/13 and III/20 require lifesaving appliances to be in a state of continuous readiness and readily accessible for immediate use in an emergency. Locking them up or making them inaccessible defeats their purpose.

30. The general emergency alarm signal is composed of_____.

  • A. One long blast
  • B. Four long blasts followed by one short blast
  • C. An announcement on the PA system by the Master
  • D. Seven short blasts followed by one long blast
Answer: D — Seven short blasts followed by one long blast
The general emergency alarm signal under SOLAS III/6.4.2 and LSA Code 7.2 is seven or more short blasts followed by one long blast on the ship's whistle or siren, and on the general alarm bells.

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