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DG Exit Exam
Answer Key

FPFF exit exam questions and answers — Set 14 — Fire Prevention & Fire Fighting

Set 14 of the Fire Prevention & Fire Fighting (FPFF) exit exam bank — 30 of 656 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

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Set 14 — 30 FPFF exit exam questions with answers

1. The control panel of a fire detection system must have all of the following EXCEPT_____.

  • A. A power-available light
  • B. An audible alarm to notify the crew and identify the origin of the fire
  • C. A means to silence audible alarms while maintaining visible alarm lights
  • D. A way to bypass the entire panel if it malfunctions
Answer: D — A way to bypass the entire panel if it malfunctions
A fire detection control panel must show power availability, give audible and visual alarms identifying the section, and allow audible alarms to be silenced while visual indication remains. A facility to bypass the entire panel is not permitted under the FSS Code.

2. Rocket parachute flares used as distress signals must be stowed ____.

  • A. On or near the navigating bridge
  • B. On the flying bridge not closer than 15 feet to any bulkhead
  • C. Above the freeboard deck away from heat
  • D. In an enclosed space below the freeboard deck away from heat
Answer: A — On or near the navigating bridge
SOLAS III/6.3 requires not less than 12 rocket parachute flares to be carried and stowed on or near the navigation bridge, so the officer of the watch can use them without delay.

3. Fire alarm system thermostats are actuated by ____.

  • A. Smoke sensors
  • B. The difference in thermal expansion of two dissimilar metals
  • C. Pressure loss due to air being heated
  • D. An electric eye which actuates when smoke interferes with the beam
Answer: B — The difference in thermal expansion of two dissimilar metals
A bimetallic heat detector uses two metals with different coefficients of thermal expansion bonded together. When heated, the strip bends and closes the alarm contacts at the set temperature.

4. How does foam extinguish an oil fire?

  • A. By cooling the oil below the ignition temperature
  • B. By removing the fuel source from the fire
  • C. By excluding the oxygen from the fire
  • D. By increasing the weight of the oil
Answer: C — By excluding the oxygen from the fire
Foam forms a blanket over the burning liquid that excludes oxygen and suppresses flammable vapours. Its water content also gives some cooling, but smothering is the main mechanism on oil fires.

5. The four basic components of a fire are chain reaction, heat, fuel, and _____.

  • A. Carbon monoxide
  • B. Oxygen
  • C. Carbon dioxide
  • D. Any gaseous substance
Answer: B — Oxygen
The fire tetrahedron consists of fuel, heat, oxygen and the uninhibited chemical chain reaction. Removing any one of these extinguishes the fire, which is the basis of all firefighting methods.

6. High-velocity fog ____.

  • A. Is a finer, more diffuse water spray than low-velocity fog
  • B. Requires that the water pressure be no greater than 60 psi
  • C. Produces an effective fog pattern no more than 6 feet beyond the nozzle
  • D. Extinguishes a fire by absorbing heat and reducing the supply of oxygen
Answer: D — Extinguishes a fire by absorbing heat and reducing the supply of oxygen
High-velocity fog extinguishes fire mainly by absorbing heat as fine droplets turn to steam, and the steam produced dilutes the oxygen around the fire. Low-velocity fog is actually the finer spray.

7. Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by _____.

  • A. Removing the fuel
  • B. Interrupting the chain reaction
  • C. Removing the oxygen
  • D. Removing the heat
Answer: A — Removing the fuel
On board, fuel such as structure, fittings, cargo or bunkers usually cannot be removed from a burning space. Fires are therefore normally extinguished by cooling, smothering or breaking the chain reaction instead.

8. The four basic components of a fire are fuel, heat, oxygen and a chain reaction. Which of the following statements best describes what must be eliminated to extinguish a fire?

  • A. Any one component can be eliminated to extinguish a fire
  • B. Any two components must be eliminated to properly extinguish a fire
  • C. Any three components must be eliminated to properly extinguish a fire
  • D. All four components must be eliminated to extinguish any fire
Answer: A — Any one component can be eliminated to extinguish a fire
Fire needs all four elements of the fire tetrahedron at the same time. Removing any one of them, whether fuel, heat, oxygen or the chain reaction, is enough to extinguish the fire.

9. Fires involving combustible metals are classified as ____.

  • A. Class A fires
  • B. Class B fires
  • C. Class C fires
  • D. Class D fires
Answer: D — Class D fires
Under the NFPA classification, Class D fires involve combustible metals such as magnesium, sodium, potassium, titanium and aluminium powder. They require special dry powder agents because water may react violently.

10. What are the most important reasons for using water fog to fight fires?

  • A. Smothers burning surfaces, organically destroys fuel
  • B. Cools fire and adjacent surfaces, provides protective barrier
  • C. Reaches areas not protected by steam or CO2 smothering systems
  • D. Allows fire to be attacked from leeward, saturates liquid surfaces
Answer: B — Cools fire and adjacent surfaces, provides protective barrier
Water fog absorbs heat rapidly, cooling the fire and nearby surfaces, and a fog pattern forms a protective curtain that shields firefighters from radiant heat as they advance.

11. Any extinguishing agent used on a Class C fire must have which important property?

  • A. Cooling ability
  • B. Leaves no residue
  • C. Penetrating power
  • D. Nonconductivity
Answer: D — Nonconductivity
Class C fires involve energised electrical equipment, so the extinguishing agent must be non-conductive to avoid electric shock to the operator. CO2 and dry chemical meet this requirement.

12. A fire of escaping liquefied flammable gas is best extinguished by _____.

  • A. Cooling the gas below the ignition point
  • B. Cutting off the supply of oxygen
  • C. Stopping the flow of gas
  • D. Interrupting the chain reaction
Answer: C — Stopping the flow of gas
A burning jet of escaping liquefied gas cannot be safely extinguished while gas is still flowing, because unburnt gas may form an explosive cloud and reignite. Stopping the flow at the source removes the fuel.

13. Under the NFPA classification, a Class C fire would occur in ____.

  • A. Bedding
  • B. Pipe insulation
  • C. Paint
  • D. A generator
Answer: D — A generator
Under the NFPA classification, Class C fires involve energised electrical equipment. A generator is electrical equipment, while bedding and insulation are Class A materials and paint is a Class B flammable liquid.

14. Which type of portable fire extinguisher is NOT designed for use on flammable liquid fires?

  • A. Foam (stored-pressure)
  • B. Water (cartridge-operated)
  • C. Dry chemical
  • D. Carbon dioxide
Answer: B — Water (cartridge-operated)
A cartridge-operated water extinguisher is suitable only for Class A fires. A water jet on burning liquid spreads the fuel and can cause violent boil-over, so it must not be used on flammable liquid fires.

15. The fire main system should be flushed with fresh water whenever possible to ____.

  • A. Help destroy marine growth
  • B. Identify loose pipe joints
  • C. Prevent corrosion of valve stems
  • D. Eliminate cracking of fire hose linings
Answer: A — Help destroy marine growth
Fire mains are normally charged with sea water, which leaves marine growth and salt deposits in the piping. Flushing with fresh water when possible helps kill marine growth and keeps the lines clear.

16. Ventilation systems connected to a compartment in which a fire is burning are normally closed to prevent the rapid spread of the fire by ____.

  • A. Convection
  • B. Conduction
  • C. Radiation
  • D. Spontaneous combustion
Answer: A — Convection
Convection is the transfer of heat by movement of hot gases and smoke. Closing the ventilation to a burning compartment stops these hot gases being carried through the trunking to ignite other spaces.

17. Convection spreads a fire by ____.

  • A. Transmitting the heat of a fire through the ship's metal
  • B. Burning liquids flowing into another space
  • C. Heated gases flowing through ventilation systems
  • D. The transfer of heat across an unobstructed space
Answer: C — Heated gases flowing through ventilation systems
Convection transfers heat through the movement of heated gases and smoke. On ships these hot gases travel through ventilation trunks, stairways and passageways and can ignite materials in distant spaces.

18. The three basic elements necessary for any fire are ____.

  • A. Heat, gas, and flames
  • B. Fuel, heat, and oxygen
  • C. Heat, nitrogen, and fuel
  • D. Fuel oil, nitrogen, and oxygen
Answer: B — Fuel, heat, and oxygen
The fire triangle shows that fuel, heat and oxygen must all be present for fire to exist. The fire tetrahedron adds the chemical chain reaction as the fourth element.

19. What is the MOST important consideration when determining how to fight an electrical fire?

  • A. Whether the fire is in machinery or passenger spaces
  • B. Danger of shock to personnel
  • C. The amount of toxic fumes created by the extinguisher
  • D. Maintaining electrical power
Answer: B — Danger of shock to personnel
Electric shock is the greatest danger in an electrical fire. The power should be isolated if possible and only non-conductive agents such as CO2 or dry powder used, keeping safe distances from live equipment.

20. Fire hose should always be stowed at the fire station in the hose rack ____.

  • A. After the hose has been completely drained
  • B. With the nozzle in the solid stream position
  • C. So the hose can be connected quickly if a fire occurs
  • D. So the nozzle is protected by the hose
Answer: A — After the hose has been completely drained
Hose must be drained completely before stowing in the rack, because water left inside promotes mildew and rot of the lining and can freeze in cold weather, damaging the hose.

21. The powder in a dry chemical fire extinguisher ____.

  • A. Is always ready for use and requires no attention
  • B. May cake up and fail to discharge properly if not occasionally agitated
  • C. Deteriorates to an unusable condition within three years
  • D. Puts out the fire with its cooling action
Answer: B — May cake up and fail to discharge properly if not occasionally agitated
Dry chemical powder can absorb moisture and settle or cake over time, so it may not discharge properly. Periodic inversion or agitation during inspection and servicing keeps the powder free-flowing.

22. Each fireman's outfit and its spare equipment on a tanker must be stowed in a(n) ____.

  • A. Locked cabinet in the machinery space
  • B. Unlocked cabinet in the machinery space
  • C. Separate and accessible location
  • D. Location near a fire hydrant
Answer: C — Separate and accessible location
SOLAS II-2/10.10.3 requires firefighter's outfits and personal equipment to be stored so as to be easily accessible and ready for use, and where more than one is carried, in widely separated positions.

23. Portable oil tank cleaning machines are usually supplied with water from the ____.

  • A. Inert gas scrubber
  • B. Firemain
  • C. Mucking supply system
  • D. Potable water supply
Answer: B — Firemain
Portable tank cleaning machines are connected by hose to the tank cleaning line, which is normally supplied by the fire main or a cargo pump delivering wash water from a sea suction.

24. If your vessel carries ten portable foam fire extinguishers, you must maintain a supply of at least ____.

  • A. One spare extinguisher
  • B. One spare charge
  • C. Five spare charges
  • D. Ten spare charges
Answer: D — Ten spare charges
SOLAS II-2/10.3.3 requires spare charges for 100% of the first ten portable extinguishers of each type and 50% of the remainder. For ten foam extinguishers, ten spare charges must be carried.

25. If you find that the pressure cartridge on a dry chemical fire extinguisher has been punctured, you must _____.

  • A. Replace the pressure cartridge and weigh the chemical charge
  • B. Replace the entire charge of chemical agent
  • C. Have the unit hydrostatically tested
  • D. Weigh the pressure cartridge to determine if it must be replaced
Answer: A — Replace the pressure cartridge and weigh the chemical charge
A punctured cartridge has discharged its gas, so it must be replaced. The powder charge should also be weighed and checked, since partial discharge or caking may have occurred.

26. Which of the listed devices is required to be located on the discharge side of the pump in a fire main system?

  • A. Pressure gauge
  • B. Strainer
  • C. Reduction valve
  • D. International shore connection
Answer: A — Pressure gauge
A pressure gauge must be fitted on the discharge side of each fire pump so the operator can confirm the pump is delivering the required pressure to the fire main. SOLAS II-2/10.2 sets minimum hydrant pressures.

27. A fire hose should be stowed in its rack with the ____.

  • A. Hose sections disconnected
  • B. Foam nozzle attached
  • C. All-purpose nozzle attached
  • D. Hose sections rolled separately
Answer: C — All-purpose nozzle attached
SOLAS II-2/10.2.3 requires each fire hose to be provided with a dual-purpose (jet/spray) nozzle and kept ready near its hydrant, so it can be brought into use immediately without searching for fittings.

28. When is it required for a dry chemical fire extinguisher to be recharged?

  • A. After each use
  • B. When the air temperature exceeds 90°F
  • C. Every six months
  • D. Every 12 months
Answer: A — After each use
Any discharge, even partial, leaves a dry chemical extinguisher with reduced powder and propellant. It must be recharged after every use so it is fully ready for the next emergency.

29. Fire hose couplings ____.

  • A. Are made of bronze, brass, or soft alloy metals
  • B. Should be painted red in order to identify hose lengths
  • C. Are specially hardened to prevent crushing
  • D. Should be greased frequently
Answer: A — Are made of bronze, brass, or soft alloy metals
Fire hose couplings are made of brass, bronze or similar soft non-sparking, corrosion-resistant alloys. They must be handled carefully as they dent easily, and should not be greased or painted.

30. When water fog is used as an extinguishing agent, the fire is extinguished principally by the ____.

  • A. Isolation of the fuel
  • B. Absorption of heat
  • C. Displacement of gases of combustion
  • D. Extinguishment of incipient smoldering
Answer: B — Absorption of heat
Water fog consists of fine droplets with a large surface area that absorb heat rapidly and turn into steam. This cooling effect is the principal means by which fog extinguishes a fire.

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