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DG Exit Exam
Answer Key

FPFF exit exam questions and answers — Set 18 — Fire Prevention & Fire Fighting

Set 18 of the Fire Prevention & Fire Fighting (FPFF) exit exam bank — 30 of 656 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

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Set 18 — 30 FPFF exit exam questions with answers

1. The temperature at which the vapour near the surface of a liquid ignites without an external flame or spark is called the ____.

  • A. Fire point
  • B. Flash point
  • C. Self-ignition temperature
  • D. None of the above
Answer: C — Self-ignition temperature
The self-ignition (auto-ignition) temperature is when a substance ignites spontaneously without an external ignition source. At the flash point an external flame or spark is still needed.

2. A dry powder fire extinguisher has a ____ colour band.

  • A. Cream
  • B. Blue
  • C. Yellow
  • D. Red
Answer: B — Blue
Under the European colour coding (BS EN 3), red-bodied extinguishers carry a coloured band identifying the agent: blue for dry powder, cream for foam, black for CO2 and red for water.

3. Which of the following colours identifies a foam fire extinguisher?

  • A. Blue
  • B. Red
  • C. Yellow
  • D. Cream
Answer: D — Cream
Under BS EN 3 colour coding, red-bodied foam extinguishers carry a cream band or label, while dry powder is identified by blue, CO2 by black and water by red.

4. When the low-pressure warning whistle of an SCBA sounds, the wearer should ____.

  • A. Continue working for about 30 more minutes
  • B. Leave the space immediately, as only a small reserve of air remains
  • C. Reduce breathing rate and continue the task
  • D. Remove the face mask to save air
Answer: B — Leave the space immediately, as only a small reserve of air remains
The warning whistle sounds when cylinder pressure falls to a set level, leaving only a small reserve for escape (around 10 minutes). The wearer must withdraw immediately to fresh air.

5. The transfer of heat between two objects at different temperatures that are in direct contact is called ____.

  • A. Convection
  • B. Radiation
  • C. Conduction
  • D. Ignition
Answer: C — Conduction
Conduction is heat transfer through direct contact within or between solids, such as steel bulkheads. This is why boundary cooling of adjacent bulkheads and decks is needed to stop fire spreading.

6. Compared with air, carbon dioxide is ____.

  • A. Lighter
  • B. Heavier, about 1.5 times as dense
  • C. Of the same density
  • D. Lighter, about half as dense
Answer: B — Heavier, about 1.5 times as dense
CO2 is about 1.5 times heavier than air, so it settles in low places such as bilges and tank bottoms. This is why entry after CO2 flooding is from the top and low areas are tested.

7. Combustion is a rapid ____ reaction that produces heat and light.

  • A. Reduction
  • B. Oxidation
  • C. Neutralisation
  • D. Hydrolysis
Answer: B — Oxidation
Combustion, or fire, is a rapid oxidation of fuel with oxygen, releasing energy as heat and light. Slower oxidation, such as rusting, releases heat without flame.

8. At the flash point, the vapour above a liquid ____.

  • A. Ignites spontaneously without any ignition source
  • B. Ignites momentarily only when an external spark or flame is applied
  • C. Continues to burn steadily after ignition
  • D. Cannot be ignited by any means
Answer: B — Ignites momentarily only when an external spark or flame is applied
Flash point is the lowest temperature at which enough vapour is given off to flash momentarily when an external ignition source is applied. Sustained burning occurs at the fire point.

9. Stairways and corridors used as means of escape shall not be less than ____ in clear width.

  • A. 400 mm
  • B. 500 mm
  • C. 700 mm
  • D. 1200 mm
Answer: C — 700 mm
SOLAS II-2/13.3 requires stairways and corridors used as means of escape to be not less than 700 mm in clear width, with a handrail on one side, so persons can escape safely.

10. The four simple steps for operating a fire extinguisher are remembered by the term PASS, which stands for ____.

  • A. Push, Aim, Spray, Stop
  • B. Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep
  • C. Pull, Alert, Spray, Stand
  • D. Point, Activate, Squeeze, Shut
Answer: B — Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep
PASS means Pull the safety pin, Aim the nozzle at the base of the fire, Squeeze the operating lever, and Sweep from side to side over the burning area.

11. Portable fire extinguishers on board should be inspected at least ____.

  • A. Once a month
  • B. Once every two years
  • C. Once every five years
  • D. Only after use
Answer: A — Once a month
MSC.1/Circ.1432 requires monthly inspection of portable extinguishers to verify they are in place, charged, undamaged and with seals intact, alongside annual servicing by a competent person.

12. Ships of ____ gross tonnage and upwards must carry at least one international shore connection.

  • A. 150
  • B. 500
  • C. 1000
  • D. 3000
Answer: B — 500
SOLAS II-2/10.2.1.7 requires ships of 500 gross tonnage and upwards to have at least one international shore connection, so shore water can be supplied to the fire main on either side.

13. The emergency source of power for the fire detection and alarm system must be available for at least ____.

  • A. 12 hours on passenger ships and 3 hours on cargo ships
  • B. 24 hours on passenger ships and 12 hours on cargo ships
  • C. 36 hours on passenger ships and 18 hours on cargo ships
  • D. 18 hours on passenger ships and 12 hours on cargo ships
Answer: C — 36 hours on passenger ships and 18 hours on cargo ships
SOLAS II-1/42 and 43 require the emergency source of power to supply the fire detection and alarm systems for 36 hours on passenger ships and 18 hours on cargo ships.

14. When a fire breaks out on board a ship alongside in port that cannot be controlled, the ship should ____.

  • A. Fight it with own crew and inform shore only after it is extinguished
  • B. Raise the alarm and call the shore fire brigade and terminal immediately
  • C. Unmoor and proceed to sea immediately
  • D. Inform the company first and wait for instructions
Answer: B — Raise the alarm and call the shore fire brigade and terminal immediately
ISGOTT and port regulations require the ship to raise the alarm and immediately inform the terminal and shore fire services, so that shore assistance arrives quickly while the crew fights the fire.

15. Under the FSS Code, the capacity of required portable fluid fire extinguishers shall be ____.

  • A. Not more than 13.5 litres and not less than 9 litres
  • B. Not more than 9 litres and not less than 4.5 litres
  • C. Not more than 20 litres and not less than 13.5 litres
  • D. Exactly 45 litres
Answer: A — Not more than 13.5 litres and not less than 9 litres
FSS Code Chapter 4 states that the capacity of required portable fluid extinguishers shall be not more than 13.5 litres and not less than 9 litres, so that they carry enough agent yet remain light enough to be carried and operated by one person.

16. Static electricity is best described as electricity ____.

  • A. Produced on dissimilar materials through physical contact and separation
  • B. Produced only by lightning strikes during thunderstorms
  • C. Supplied by the ship's main switchboard through earthed cables
  • D. Generated only by alternating current machines
Answer: A — Produced on dissimilar materials through physical contact and separation
Static electricity is the charge generated when dissimilar materials come into contact and then separate, such as liquid flowing through pipes or splashing. ISGOTT treats it as a major ignition source, which is why bonding, earthing and flow-rate limits are applied.

17. "C" class divisions are constructed of approved non-combustible materials and ____.

  • A. Need meet neither requirements relative to the passage of smoke and flame nor limitations relative to the temperature rise
  • B. Must prevent the passage of smoke and flame up to the end of the one-hour standard fire test
  • C. Must prevent the passage of smoke and flame up to the end of the first half hour of the standard fire test
  • D. Must be insulated so that the unexposed side does not rise more than 140°C above ambient
Answer: A — Need meet neither requirements relative to the passage of smoke and flame nor limitations relative to the temperature rise
SOLAS II-2/3 defines C class divisions as divisions constructed of approved non-combustible materials which need meet neither requirements relative to the passage of smoke and flame nor limitations relative to the temperature rise. A and B class divisions have those integrity and insulation requirements.

18. Under the FSS Code, the mass of a fully charged portable fire extinguisher shall not exceed ____.

  • A. 23 kg
  • B. 13 kg
  • C. 9 kg
  • D. 35 kg
Answer: A — 23 kg
FSS Code Chapter 4 limits portable fire extinguishers to a mass of not more than 23 kg when fully charged, so that one person can carry and operate them. The statement that the limit is 13 kg is therefore incorrect.

19. The high-velocity fog tip used with the all-purpose fire-fighting nozzle should always be ____.

  • A. Attached by a chain
  • B. Coated with heavy grease to prevent corrosion
  • C. Painted red for identity as emergency equipment
  • D. Stored in the clip at each fire station
Answer: A — Attached by a chain
The high-velocity fog tip is kept attached to the all-purpose nozzle by a short chain so that it cannot be lost or mislaid and is immediately available when the nozzle handle is moved to the fog position during fire fighting.

20. The spreading of fire as a result of heat being carried through a vessel's ventilation system is an example of heat transfer by ____.

  • A. Convection
  • B. Conduction
  • C. Radiation
  • D. Windage
Answer: A — Convection
Convection is heat transfer by the movement of a heated fluid such as air or smoke. Hot gases carried along ventilation trunking can ignite combustibles in distant compartments, which is why fire dampers and ventilation shutdown are essential first actions.

21. The lowest temperature at which the vapours of a flammable liquid will ignite and cause self-sustained combustion in the presence of a spark or flame is the ____.

  • A. Fire point
  • B. Auto-ignition temperature
  • C. Vaporization temperature
  • D. Flash point
Answer: A — Fire point
At the flash point vapours only flash momentarily when ignited. The fire point, a few degrees higher, is the lowest temperature at which enough vapour is produced to keep burning after ignition. Auto-ignition temperature requires no external flame or spark.

22. What is the primary purpose of a fire risk assessment?

  • A. To identify potential fire hazards and assess their impact
  • B. To determine the building's energy efficiency
  • C. To calculate insurance premiums
  • D. To evaluate employee satisfaction
Answer: A — To identify potential fire hazards and assess their impact
A fire risk assessment systematically identifies sources of ignition, fuel and oxygen, the people at risk and the likely consequences, so that control measures can be put in place. On board this forms part of the ISM Code risk assessment process.

23. Which fire extinguisher is suitable for fires involving combustible metals?

  • A. Dry powder extinguisher
  • B. Water extinguisher
  • C. Foam extinguisher
  • D. CO2 extinguisher
Answer: A — Dry powder extinguisher
Burning metals such as magnesium, sodium or aluminium react violently with water and foam and are not extinguished by CO2. Special dry powder agents smother the metal and form a crust that excludes oxygen, making dry powder the correct choice.

24. What should be the first step when operating a portable fire extinguisher?

  • A. Pull the pin on the extinguisher
  • B. Assess the size of the fire
  • C. Aim the nozzle at the base of the flames
  • D. Squeeze the operating lever
Answer: A — Pull the pin on the extinguisher
Following the PASS sequence, the safety pin must be pulled first; until it is removed the operating lever cannot be squeezed. The operator then aims at the base of the fire, squeezes the lever and sweeps from side to side.

25. What is the primary purpose of fire-resistant construction materials?

  • A. To slow down the spread of fire and protect structural integrity
  • B. To reduce construction costs
  • C. To make the structure aesthetically pleasing
  • D. To provide insulation during winter months
Answer: A — To slow down the spread of fire and protect structural integrity
Fire-resistant materials and insulated divisions contain a fire within its compartment for a set period and keep the structure from failing. SOLAS II-2 structural fire protection uses A, B and C class divisions for this purpose.

26. What is the purpose of the fire triangle?

  • A. To illustrate the relationship between fuel, oxygen and heat in a fire
  • B. To represent the three main types of fires
  • C. To indicate the three primary escape routes
  • D. To identify the locations of fire extinguishers
Answer: A — To illustrate the relationship between fuel, oxygen and heat in a fire
The fire triangle shows that fuel, oxygen and heat must all be present for combustion. Removing any one side, by starving, smothering or cooling, extinguishes the fire, which is the basis of every fire-fighting method taught in FPFF.

27. What is the purpose of a Safety Data Sheet (SDS/MSDS)?

  • A. To provide information on the properties and hazards of hazardous materials
  • B. To outline the company's budget for fire prevention
  • C. To list the names of crew trained in fire safety
  • D. To document the history of past fire incidents
Answer: A — To provide information on the properties and hazards of hazardous materials
An SDS gives the physical and chemical properties, fire and explosion hazards, suitable extinguishing media, health effects and handling precautions for a substance. SOLAS VI/5-1 requires an MSDS for MARPOL Annex I cargoes and marine fuel oils.

28. In the galley, what should be done if cooking oil catches fire in a pan?

  • A. Cover the pan with a metal lid or fire blanket to smother the fire
  • B. Pour water on it to extinguish the flames
  • C. Ignore it and let it burn out on its own
  • D. Carry the burning pan outside
Answer: A — Cover the pan with a metal lid or fire blanket to smother the fire
Water on burning oil turns to steam instantly and throws burning oil over a wide area. Shutting off the heat and covering the pan with a lid or fire blanket excludes oxygen and smothers the fire safely.

29. Under the US (NFPA) classification, which class of fire involves energized electrical equipment?

  • A. Class C
  • B. Class A
  • C. Class B
  • D. Class D
Answer: A — Class C
In the NFPA classification Class A is ordinary combustibles, Class B flammable liquids and gases, Class C energized electrical equipment and Class D combustible metals. Non-conductive agents such as CO2 or dry powder are used on Class C fires.

30. What should you do if you encounter heavy smoke during a fire evacuation?

  • A. Stay low, cover your nose and mouth, and evacuate if possible
  • B. Proceed upright and quickly through the smoke
  • C. Open windows and ports to let the smoke escape
  • D. Wait in the smoke until rescuers arrive
Answer: A — Stay low, cover your nose and mouth, and evacuate if possible
Hot smoke and toxic gases rise, so cleaner, cooler air is found near the deck. Keeping low, protecting the airway and following the escape route, using an EEBD where provided, gives the best chance of survival.

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