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FPFF exit exam questions and answers — Set 22 — Fire Prevention & Fire Fighting

Set 22 of the Fire Prevention & Fire Fighting (FPFF) exit exam bank — 26 of 656 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

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26 of 26 shown · Set 22

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Set 22 — 26 FPFF exit exam questions with answers

1. Under FSS Code chapter 14, what is the minimum capacity of each foam monitor on a tanker's deck foam system?

  • A. 200 l/min
  • B. 5,000 l/min
  • C. 1,250 l/min
  • D. 400 l/min
Answer: C — 1,250 l/min
Each monitor must deliver at least 3 l/min of foam solution per m² of deck area it protects, and in any case not less than 1,250 l/min, so that a burning area of deck can be covered quickly.

2. Under FSS Code chapter 14, what is the minimum capacity and throw of each foam applicator on a tanker's deck?

  • A. 200 l/min with a throw of at least 5 m
  • B. 400 l/min with a throw of at least 15 m
  • C. 1,250 l/min with a throw of at least 30 m
  • D. 100 l/min with a throw of at least 10 m
Answer: B — 400 l/min with a throw of at least 15 m
FSS Code chapter 14 requires at least four foam applicators, each with a capacity of not less than 400 l/min and a throw in still air of not less than 15 m, for flexibility in attacking fires that monitors cannot reach.

3. Under FSS Code chapter 14, where must foam monitors be positioned in relation to the poop front or accommodation?

  • A. Only inside the cargo pump-room
  • B. Only at the forecastle head
  • C. On both port and starboard sides at the poop front or accommodation facing the cargo area
  • D. Only on the monkey island
Answer: C — On both port and starboard sides at the poop front or accommodation facing the cargo area
FSS Code chapter 14 requires monitors and hose connections for foam applicators to be situated on both the port and starboard sides at the front of the poop or accommodation spaces facing the cargo area, so the deck can be attacked from either side.

4. Under FSS Code chapter 14, the distance from a deck foam monitor to the farthest extremity of the area it protects forward must not exceed what?

  • A. 50% of the monitor throw in still air
  • B. 25 metres in all cases
  • C. 75% of the monitor throw in still air
  • D. 100% of the monitor throw in still air
Answer: C — 75% of the monitor throw in still air
The FSS Code limits the distance from a monitor to the farthest extremity of the protected area forward of it to not more than 75% of the monitor throw in still air, allowing for wind and loss of range in a real fire.

5. Why are isolation valves fitted in the foam main and fire main immediately forward of each monitor position on a tanker's deck?

  • A. To stop foam reaching the accommodation
  • B. To regulate the expansion ratio of the foam
  • C. To drain the mains after each drill
  • D. To allow damaged sections of the mains to be isolated so the system remains usable
Answer: D — To allow damaged sections of the mains to be isolated so the system remains usable
FSS Code chapter 14 requires valves in the foam main and in the fire main immediately forward of every monitor position so that a section damaged by fire or explosion can be isolated while the rest of the system continues to deliver foam and water.

6. Under MSC.1/Circ.1312, when should the first periodical control test of foam concentrate (other than certain premix types) be carried out?

  • A. Only every 10 years
  • B. Every month from the date of supply
  • C. Only when the foam is used in a fire
  • D. After 3 years from supply, and every year thereafter
Answer: D — After 3 years from supply, and every year thereafter
MSC.1/Circ.1312 on periodical control of foam concentrates provides that the first test should be performed after three years and thereafter annually, with samples analysed by a laboratory or the manufacturer to confirm the concentrate still performs.

7. Under the FSS Code, a portable foam applicator unit must include a portable tank containing at least how much foam concentrate, plus one spare tank?

  • A. 50 litres
  • B. 5 litres
  • C. 10 litres
  • D. 20 litres
Answer: D — 20 litres
FSS Code chapter 4 requires a portable foam applicator unit to consist of an air-foam nozzle or branch pipe of an inductor type connected to the fire main by a hose, with a portable tank containing at least 20 litres of foam concentrate and at least one spare tank.

8. Why should water jets not be directed onto a foam blanket that is covering a burning cargo spill on deck?

  • A. Water causes the foam to become electrically charged and explode
  • B. Water turns the foam into a toxic gas
  • C. Water increases the expansion ratio of the foam
  • D. Water breaks down the foam blanket and allows vapour to escape and re-ignite
Answer: D — Water breaks down the foam blanket and allows vapour to escape and re-ignite
A foam blanket works by sealing the liquid surface from air and suppressing vapour. Water jets or heavy spray break up the bubbles and wash the foam away, re-exposing the fuel; water may be used only for cooling surrounding structures.

9. Under the IGC Code, gas carriers of what cargo capacity must be fitted with at least two independent self-contained dry chemical powder units?

  • A. 500 m³ or more
  • B. 1,000 m³ or more
  • C. 5,000 m³ or more
  • D. All gas carriers regardless of size
Answer: B — 1,000 m³ or more
IGC Code chapter 11 requires ships carrying flammable products to have a fixed dry chemical powder system for the cargo area, and ships with a cargo capacity of 1,000 m³ or more to be fitted with at least two independent self-contained dry chemical powder units.

10. Under the IGC Code, what is the minimum discharge rate of a dry chemical powder monitor?

  • A. 10 kg/s
  • B. 1 kg/s
  • C. 3.5 kg/s
  • D. 45 kg/s
Answer: A — 10 kg/s
IGC Code chapter 11 requires dry chemical powder monitors to have a capacity of at least 10 kg/s; a 10 kg/s monitor is taken to cover up to 10 m, a 25 kg/s monitor up to 30 m and a 45 kg/s monitor up to 40 m.

11. Under the IGC Code, what is the maximum length of a dry chemical powder hand hose line?

  • A. 20 m
  • B. 15 m
  • C. 50 m
  • D. 33 m
Answer: D — 33 m
IGC Code chapter 11 limits hand hose lines to a maximum length of 33 m; they must be non-kinkable, and the area they protect is taken as no greater than the length of the hose.

12. Under the IGC Code, each dry chemical powder container must hold enough powder for a minimum discharge time of how long for all monitors and hand hose lines attached to that unit?

  • A. 20 minutes
  • B. 5 minutes
  • C. 10 seconds
  • D. 45 seconds
Answer: D — 45 seconds
The IGC Code requires a sufficient quantity of dry chemical powder in each container to give a minimum of 45 seconds discharge for all monitors and hand hose lines attached to that powder unit.

13. What gas is normally used to fluidise and propel the powder in a gas carrier's fixed dry chemical powder system?

  • A. Compressed oxygen
  • B. Nitrogen
  • C. Hydrocarbon vapour
  • D. Carbon dioxide
Answer: B — Nitrogen
Dry chemical powder units on gas carriers use nitrogen stored in high-pressure cylinders to pressurise and fluidise the powder in the container and to propel it through the piping to the monitors and hand hose lines.

14. Why should a gas jet fire at a leaking flange on a gas carrier not normally be extinguished with dry powder before the leak is isolated?

  • A. Dry powder will freeze the leaking flange solid
  • B. The powder will block the manifold drip tray
  • C. Dry powder reacts with the gas to form a toxic cloud
  • D. Unburnt escaping gas may form a vapour cloud that can re-ignite explosively
Answer: D — Unburnt escaping gas may form a vapour cloud that can re-ignite explosively
If the flame is put out while gas is still escaping, a flammable vapour cloud can build up and find an ignition source, causing an explosion. The burning leak is controlled and surroundings cooled with water spray until the supply is isolated.

15. What is the main limitation of dry chemical powder when used against a gas or flammable liquid fire on a gas carrier deck?

  • A. It increases the rate of vaporisation of the liquid
  • B. It conducts electricity
  • C. It has little cooling effect, so re-ignition from hot surfaces is possible
  • D. It cannot be thrown more than one metre
Answer: C — It has little cooling effect, so re-ignition from hot surfaces is possible
Dry powder extinguishes flame rapidly by interrupting the chain reaction but provides little cooling or lasting cover. Hot steelwork can re-ignite vapour, so water spray is used to cool surrounding structures and equipment.

16. Why are dry chemical powder hoses and piping blown through with nitrogen after the system has been used?

  • A. To recharge the powder container
  • B. To cool the hose reels after a fire
  • C. To test the hydrostatic strength of the hoses
  • D. To clear residual powder that could otherwise cake and block the lines
Answer: D — To clear residual powder that could otherwise cake and block the lines
Residual powder left in piping, valves and hoses can absorb moisture and cake, causing blockages the next time the system is needed. Purging with nitrogen after each discharge leaves the lines clear and the system ready for use.

17. Why is alcohol-resistant foam required for fires involving cargoes such as alcohols and ketones?

  • A. Alcohol-resistant foam has a higher expansion ratio
  • B. Ordinary foam ignites on contact with them
  • C. These cargoes react violently with dry powder
  • D. Water-miscible polar solvents rapidly break down ordinary foam
Answer: D — Water-miscible polar solvents rapidly break down ordinary foam
Polar solvents such as alcohols and ketones mix with water and destroy the bubble structure of ordinary foam. Alcohol-resistant foam forms a polymeric membrane between the fuel and the foam blanket and remains effective on these cargoes.

18. In column 'o' of IBC Code chapter 17, what does the code letter 'A' indicate for a product?

  • A. Dry chemical
  • B. Regular foam
  • C. Alcohol-resistant foam
  • D. Water spray
Answer: C — Alcohol-resistant foam
Column o of IBC Code chapter 17 lists suitable fire-fighting media: A is alcohol-resistant foam (or multi-purpose foam), B regular foam including all non-alcohol-resistant types, C water spray, D dry chemical, and No means no special requirement.

19. In column 'o' of IBC Code chapter 17, what does the code letter 'D' indicate for a product?

  • A. Deluge water spray
  • B. Dry chemical
  • C. Dangerous: no water
  • D. Double-hull protection
Answer: B — Dry chemical
In the IBC Code chapter 17 summary of minimum requirements, column o shows the fire-fighting media: A alcohol-resistant foam, B regular foam, C water spray and D dry chemical, which the master uses with the cargo data to plan a fire response.

20. On a chemical tanker, where should the crew find specific fire-fighting media and hazards for the cargo on board?

  • A. In the ship's oil record book
  • B. In the ship's radio log
  • C. In the Safety Data Sheet and cargo information supplied for the product
  • D. On the general fire control plan only
Answer: C — In the Safety Data Sheet and cargo information supplied for the product
The Safety Data Sheet and cargo information required by the IBC Code give each product's flammability, reactivity, toxicity, suitable extinguishing media and emergency procedures, which must be available on board and consulted before and during a cargo fire response.

21. Under IGC Code chapter 11, what is the minimum water spray application rate for horizontal projected surfaces such as exposed cargo tank domes on a gas carrier?

  • A. 4 l/m² per minute
  • B. 25 l/m² per minute
  • C. 1 l/m² per minute
  • D. 10 l/m² per minute
Answer: D — 10 l/m² per minute
The IGC Code water-spray system for cooling, fire prevention and crew protection must give a uniform application of at least 10 l/m² per minute for the largest projected horizontal surfaces and 4 l/m² per minute for vertical surfaces.

22. Under IGC Code chapter 11, what is the minimum water spray application rate for vertical surfaces such as the boundaries of the accommodation facing the cargo area?

  • A. 20 l/m² per minute
  • B. 0.5 l/m² per minute
  • C. 4 l/m² per minute
  • D. 10 l/m² per minute
Answer: C — 4 l/m² per minute
IGC Code chapter 11 requires the water-spray system to apply at least 4 l/m² per minute to vertical surfaces, including exposed boundaries of superstructures facing the cargo area, and at least 10 l/m² per minute to horizontal projected surfaces.

23. Why should water not be sprayed directly onto a pool of spilled LNG on deck?

  • A. It freezes into ice which ignites
  • B. It adds heat and greatly increases the rate of vaporisation
  • C. It neutralises the LNG and stops vapour release
  • D. It reacts chemically with methane to form acid
Answer: B — It adds heat and greatly increases the rate of vaporisation
Water is far warmer than LNG at about minus 162°C, so applying water to a pool transfers heat and sharply increases vaporisation, enlarging the flammable vapour cloud. Water is instead used to protect steel structures and to form curtains.

24. Why is a water curtain run along the ship's side below the manifold during LNG cargo transfer?

  • A. To cool the cargo before it enters the tanks
  • B. To provide drinking water for the deck crew
  • C. To protect the hull steel from brittle fracture if cryogenic cargo leaks
  • D. To wash away paint chips from the manifold
Answer: C — To protect the hull steel from brittle fracture if cryogenic cargo leaks
Ordinary hull steel becomes brittle at very low temperatures. A water curtain running down the shell beneath the manifold keeps the plating warm, so any LNG leaking from the manifold does not cause brittle fracture of the hull.

25. During cargo operations on an oil or chemical tanker, why are deck scuppers kept plugged?

  • A. To contain any spill on deck and prevent it going overboard or spreading as a burning liquid
  • B. To keep rainwater off the cargo tanks
  • C. To reduce static electricity on deck
  • D. To prevent air entering the cargo tanks
Answer: A — To contain any spill on deck and prevent it going overboard or spreading as a burning liquid
ISGOTT requires deck scuppers to be effectively plugged during cargo and bunker operations, so that any spill is retained on deck where it can be contained, recovered and protected with foam, instead of polluting the sea or spreading fire alongside.

26. When fighting a fire involving a spilled flammable liquid on deck, why should a straight water jet not be directed into the liquid?

  • A. It produces large quantities of foam
  • B. It can splash and spread the burning liquid over a wider area
  • C. It increases the cargo's flash point
  • D. It immediately extinguishes the fire but corrodes the deck
Answer: B — It can splash and spread the burning liquid over a wider area
A solid jet striking burning liquid scatters it and carries burning fuel further across the deck or into the sea alongside. The spill should be contained and covered with foam or dry powder, using water spray only for cooling and protection.

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