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PSSR exit exam questions and answers — Set 11 — Personal Safety & Social Responsibilities

Set 11 of the Personal Safety & Social Responsibilities (PSSR) exit exam bank — 30 of 786 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

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Set 11 — 30 PSSR exit exam questions with answers

1. The safe and efficient use of the face piece of a demand-type self-contained breathing apparatus is directly influenced by

  • A. The donning of the face piece
  • B. The stowage of the face piece
  • C. The maintenance of the face piece
  • D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
A face mask that is incorrectly donned leaks, one stowed badly may be distorted, and a poorly maintained one may have perished seals or valves. All three affect the seal and safe operation of the SCBA.

2. Personal protective equipment is required when

  • A. An employer suffers an injury
  • B. An employee suffers an injury
  • C. An employee asks for it
  • D. Engineering, work practice and administrative controls do not provide sufficient protection against hazards
Answer: D — Engineering, work practice and administrative controls do not provide sufficient protection against hazards
In the hierarchy of controls, PPE is the last line of defence, used when elimination, substitution, engineering and administrative controls cannot reduce the risk to an acceptable level.

3. Which of the following types of gloves should you wear when working with chemicals?

  • A. Butyl rubber gloves
  • B. Fabric gloves
  • C. Leather gloves
  • D. Both fabric and leather gloves
Answer: A — Butyl rubber gloves
Chemical-resistant gloves such as butyl rubber, nitrile or neoprene prevent chemicals reaching the skin. Fabric and leather gloves absorb liquids and hold chemicals against the skin, so they are unsuitable.

4. Eye protection is required for which of the following hazards?

  • A. Flying particles
  • B. Liquid chemicals, acids or caustic liquids
  • C. Chemical gases or vapours
  • D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
Goggles, safety glasses or face shields protect the eyes from impact by flying particles, chemical splashes and irritating gases or vapours. The type of protection is chosen to suit the hazard identified in the risk assessment.

5. A person who sees someone fall overboard should ____.

  • A. Go to the bridge for the distress flares
  • B. Run to the radio room to send an emergency message
  • C. Call for help and keep the individual in sight
  • D. Immediately jump into the water to assist the individual
Answer: C — Call for help and keep the individual in sight
The person who sees a man overboard must raise the alarm, throw a lifebuoy if possible and keep pointing at the casualty, never losing sight of them, since relocating a person in the water is very difficult.

6. You have heard the signal of seven short blasts followed by one prolonged blast. You should

  • A. Report directly to your muster station with your suitcase
  • B. Jump overboard
  • C. Collect your lifejacket and warm clothing and proceed to your muster station
  • D. Seek out other passengers to find out the nature of the problem
Answer: C — Collect your lifejacket and warm clothing and proceed to your muster station
Seven or more short blasts followed by one long blast is the general emergency alarm under SOLAS III/6.4.2 and the LSA Code. Everyone collects lifejackets and warm clothing and goes to their muster station; luggage must not be taken.

7. After being called to muster stations, if some time will elapse before abandonment, the master should ensure that all passengers and crew

  • A. Have a glass of whisky to keep them warm
  • B. Go to the toilet before abandoning
  • C. Choose the life raft they want to go into
  • D. Have a good drink of water and collect grab bags and warm clothing
Answer: D — Have a good drink of water and collect grab bags and warm clothing
Drinking water before abandoning reduces dehydration in the early survival period, and warm clothing and grab bags improve survival chances. Alcohol increases heat loss and should never be taken.

8. Lifebuoys are subjected to which of the following tests?

  • A. Drop test
  • B. Fire test
  • C. Flotation test
  • D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
The LSA Code requires lifebuoys to withstand a drop into water from their stowage height or 30 m, not sustain burning after being enveloped in fire for 2 seconds, and support at least 14.5 kg of iron in fresh water for 24 hours.

9. You are evacuating crew members from a survival craft that has been adrift in the North Atlantic for several days. What could occur if a person suffering from hypothermia is lifted vertically in a rescue sling to the helicopter?

  • A. A decrease in the symptoms of hypothermia
  • B. Temporary blindness from the altitude change
  • C. Severe shock or cardiac arrest
  • D. Frostbite on exposed areas
Answer: C — Severe shock or cardiac arrest
Lifting a hypothermic casualty vertically lets blood pool in the legs and reduces return to the heart, which can cause circulatory collapse or cardiac arrest. Such casualties should be lifted horizontally in a stretcher or double strop.

10. A motor lifeboat shall carry sufficient fuel to operate continuously for a period of

  • A. 12 hours
  • B. 18 hours
  • C. 24 hours
  • D. 36 hours
Answer: C — 24 hours
The LSA Code (4.4.6.8) requires the lifeboat to carry sufficient fuel, suitable for the temperature range expected, to run fully loaded at a speed of 6 knots for not less than 24 hours.

11. A muster list includes

  • A. The place of emergency assembly
  • B. The list of cargo carried
  • C. The allocation of lifeboats for passengers only
  • D. The allowance of personal property you can take
Answer: A — The place of emergency assembly
SOLAS III/37 requires the muster list to specify the general emergency alarm signal, actions to be taken and the muster stations where crew and passengers assemble, along with each crew member's duties.

12. If it was required to abandon ship, you should

  • A. Push all passengers to slip into the water or life raft
  • B. Assist the passengers to slip into the water or life raft
  • C. Get all passengers off before inflating the life raft
  • D. Jump into the water first to encourage them
Answer: B — Assist the passengers to slip into the water or life raft
Crew should calmly assist passengers into the life raft or water to prevent panic and injury. The raft must be inflated before people leave the ship, and pushing or leading by jumping risks injury.

13. If more than one liferaft is manned after the vessel has sunk, what action will aid in your rescue?

  • A. Each raft should go in a different direction in search of land
  • B. Spread out to increase the chance of a search aircraft finding you
  • C. Tie the rafts together and try to stay in a single group
  • D. Reduce the number of liferafts
Answer: C — Tie the rafts together and try to stay in a single group
Survival craft tied together form a larger target that is easier to detect, share equipment and resources, and remain near the distress position where search units will look first.

14. The international distress, safety and calling frequency is VHF channel ____.

  • A. 16
  • B. 18
  • C. 22
  • D. 13
Answer: A — 16
VHF channel 16 (156.8 MHz) is the international distress, safety and calling frequency. Channel 13 is used for bridge-to-bridge navigation safety and channel 70 for DSC.

15. The poop deck is located

  • A. At the aft end, above the steering flat
  • B. At the fore part of the ship
  • C. Above the bridge
  • D. Above the engine room
Answer: A — At the aft end, above the steering flat
The poop is the raised deck at the stern of the ship, and the steering gear compartment (steering flat) is located beneath it at the after end above the rudder stock.

16. The ISM Code requires work procedures which ensure ____ performance.

  • A. Superior
  • B. Profitable
  • C. Safe
  • D. Excellent
Answer: C — Safe
The objectives of the ISM Code are to ensure safety at sea, prevention of injury or loss of life and avoidance of damage to the environment, so the SMS must establish safe practices in ship operation and a safe working environment.

17. By day, the answering signal made by life-saving stations on seeing signals from a ship is

  • A. Orange smoke signal
  • B. Red parachute rocket
  • C. Hand flare
  • D. Red star signal
Answer: A — Orange smoke signal
Under the SOLAS life-saving signals, replies from life-saving stations or rescue units to distress signals by day are an orange smoke signal or combined light and sound signal; by night a white star rocket is used.

18. During a fuelling operation, which precaution should be taken when topping off fuel tanks?

  • A. Reduce the pumping rate by closing the deck filling valve
  • B. Close all overflow valves
  • C. Place 5-gallon containers under all flange connections in the fuel line
  • D. Reduce the pumping rate and sound tanks frequently
Answer: D — Reduce the pumping rate and sound tanks frequently
When topping off, the bunker rate is reduced and tank levels are sounded frequently to avoid overflow and oil pollution. Throttling against a closed deck valve can over-pressurise hoses, and overflow arrangements must remain open.

19. Ground garbage which will be discharged into the sea must be able to pass through a screen with openings no larger than ____.

  • A. 25 millimetres
  • B. 50 millimetres
  • C. 75 millimetres
  • D. 100 millimetres
Answer: A — 25 millimetres
MARPOL Annex V requires comminuted or ground food waste to be capable of passing through a screen with openings no greater than 25 mm before it may be discharged at sea under the permitted conditions.

20. In the verbal communication process, the direct exchange of ____ occurs between the sender and the receiver.

  • A. Mails
  • B. Words
  • C. Gestures
  • D. None of the above
Answer: B — Words
Verbal communication uses spoken words to carry the message directly from sender to receiver. Gestures belong to non-verbal communication and mail is a written channel.

21. Speech rate is usually much ____ than the rate at which we think.

  • A. More tedious
  • B. Slower
  • C. Faster
  • D. None of the above
Answer: B — Slower
People think several times faster than they speak, so a listener has spare mental capacity while listening. This gap allows the mind to wander, which is why active listening requires conscious concentration.

22. The problem of misunderstanding can be reduced by providing ____ to the listeners while explaining a process.

  • A. Theories
  • B. Examples
  • C. Samples
  • D. Mathematics
Answer: B — Examples
Concrete examples link a new idea to something the listener already understands, making the explanation clearer and reducing the chance that the message is misinterpreted.

23. If the receiver misunderstood the sender's message,

  • A. This could lead to effective communication
  • B. This could create a barrier to effective communication
  • C. This could lead to wonderful communication
  • D. None of these
Answer: B — This could create a barrier to effective communication
Communication is effective only when the receiver understands the message as the sender intended. Misunderstanding is itself a barrier, and on board it can lead to wrong actions and accidents, which is why closed-loop communication is used.

24. Which of the following is a disadvantage of written communication?

  • A. The preparation of written documents is time consuming
  • B. It provides a permanent record
  • C. It can be referred to later
  • D. None of these
Answer: A — The preparation of written documents is time consuming
Written communication gives a permanent record that can be referred to later, but it takes time to prepare, and feedback is slower than in face-to-face communication.

25. On many vessels, a continuous ringing of the ship's bell indicates

  • A. Change of watch
  • B. A fire emergency
  • C. Dinner is ready
  • D. Arrival in port
Answer: B — A fire emergency
The fire alarm on many vessels is a continuous ringing of the bell or fire alarm bells, as shown on the muster list. The general emergency alarm is different: seven or more short blasts followed by one long blast.

26. Before sailing, gastight doors and access hatches should be

  • A. Opened before sailing and kept open throughout the voyage
  • B. Closed and secured, and opened only when required and closed again after use
  • C. Removed to allow free access
  • D. Left unlatched so that they can swing freely
Answer: B — Closed and secured, and opened only when required and closed again after use
Gastight and weathertight closures maintain the integrity of spaces against gas ingress, water and fire spread. They must be closed and secured before sailing and only opened when necessary, being closed again immediately after use.

27. Under MARPOL Annex II, operational discharge of noxious liquid substance residues is permitted only

  • A. While the ship is en route at sea, at least 12 nm from the nearest land, in water at least 25 m deep
  • B. When alongside in port
  • C. When at anchor in a harbour
  • D. In any sea area without conditions
Answer: A — While the ship is en route at sea, at least 12 nm from the nearest land, in water at least 25 m deep
MARPOL Annex II regulation 13 allows discharge of NLS residues only while en route at a minimum speed of 7 knots, below the waterline through underwater outlets, at least 12 nautical miles from land and in water at least 25 m deep.

28. Which of the following form part of an abandon ship drill?

  • A. Checking that passengers and crew are suitably dressed
  • B. Checking that lifejackets are correctly donned
  • C. Starting and operating the lifeboat engine
  • D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
SOLAS III/19.3.3 requires each abandon ship drill to include summoning persons to muster stations, checking they are suitably dressed and that lifejackets are correctly donned, lowering at least one lifeboat, and starting and operating its engine.

29. The general emergency alarm signal consists of

  • A. Continuous ringing of the bell
  • B. Seven or more short blasts followed by one long blast
  • C. Three long blasts
  • D. One prolonged blast repeated every two minutes
Answer: B — Seven or more short blasts followed by one long blast
SOLAS III/6.4.2 and the LSA Code define the general emergency alarm as seven or more short blasts followed by one long blast on the ship's whistle or siren, supplemented by an electric bell or klaxon system.

30. Freeing ports on deck should be

  • A. Kept clear of loose gear so that water can drain freely
  • B. Blocked with loose gear lashed in front of them
  • C. Welded shut for heavy weather
  • D. Covered with tarpaulins at sea
Answer: A — Kept clear of loose gear so that water can drain freely
Freeing ports allow water shipped on deck to drain quickly overboard. The Load Line rules require them to be kept clear; obstructing them traps water on deck, which reduces stability and freeboard.

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