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PSSR exit exam questions and answers — Set 12 — Personal Safety & Social Responsibilities

Set 12 of the Personal Safety & Social Responsibilities (PSSR) exit exam bank — 30 of 786 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

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Set 12 — 30 PSSR exit exam questions with answers

1. When securing the accommodation for sea, lockers and drawers should be

  • A. Closed and secured, even when empty
  • B. Left open if they are empty
  • C. Removed from the cabins
  • D. Left open for ventilation
Answer: A — Closed and secured, even when empty
Unsecured locker doors and drawers swing and slam as the ship rolls, causing injuries and damage. Everything, including empty lockers, should be closed and secured before the ship goes to sea.

2. Hearing protection is required when you are exposed to a noise level of ____ or higher over an 8-hour period.

  • A. 60 dB(A)
  • B. 70 dB(A)
  • C. 85 dB(A)
  • D. 120 dB(A)
Answer: C — 85 dB(A)
The IMO Code on Noise Levels on Board Ships and occupational standards require hearing protection where exposure reaches 85 decibels (A-weighted) over an 8-hour period. Spaces above this level should be marked with warning signs.

3. On board ship, smoking is permitted

  • A. Only in designated smoking areas
  • B. In the galley between meals
  • C. Anywhere on the open deck during cargo operations
  • D. In your bunk before sleeping
Answer: A — Only in designated smoking areas
Smoking is restricted to designated smoking areas approved by the master, especially on tankers under ISGOTT. Smoking in bed and in unauthorised places is a major cause of shipboard fires.

4. The thermal protective aid does NOT provide

  • A. Reduction of body heat loss
  • B. Flotation
  • C. Protection against wind chill
  • D. Cover for the whole body except the face
Answer: B — Flotation
A thermal protective aid is a bag or suit of waterproof material of low thermal conductance that reduces body heat loss by convection and evaporation (LSA Code 2.5). It has no inherent buoyancy, so it does not provide flotation.

5. The self-activating smoke signal of a lifebuoy burns for not less than

  • A. 9 minutes
  • B. 12 minutes
  • C. 15 minutes
  • D. 18 minutes
Answer: C — 15 minutes
The LSA Code (2.1.3) requires a lifebuoy self-activating smoke signal to emit smoke of a highly visible colour at a uniform rate for not less than 15 minutes when floating in calm water.

6. During an abandonment or drill, the first person to arrive at the survival craft should ____.

  • A. Pass out food and water to personnel
  • B. Open the doors and start the sprinkler system
  • C. Activate the emergency release handle
  • D. Open the doors and prepare the craft for boarding
Answer: D — Open the doors and prepare the craft for boarding
The first to arrive opens the entrances and prepares the craft so others can board without delay. Releasing the craft or starting the sprinkler before boarding is premature, and rations are issued only later.

7. The distress signals required to be kept in a lifeboat are

  • A. Rocket parachute flares, hand flares and buoyant smoke signals
  • B. Rocket parachute flares and hand flares
  • C. Hand flares only
  • D. Smoke signals and line-throwing apparatus
Answer: A — Rocket parachute flares, hand flares and buoyant smoke signals
The LSA Code (4.1.5) lifeboat equipment includes four rocket parachute flares, six hand flares and two buoyant smoke signals. Line-throwing appliances are ship's equipment, not lifeboat equipment.

8. Every lifebuoy shall have an outer diameter of not more than

  • A. 500 mm
  • B. 600 mm
  • C. 700 mm
  • D. 800 mm
Answer: D — 800 mm
The LSA Code (2.1.1.1) requires a lifebuoy to have an outer diameter of not more than 800 mm and an inner diameter of not less than 400 mm, with a mass of not less than 2.5 kg.

9. The lifeboat searchlight's power source must be capable of operating the light without charging or recharging for not less than

  • A. 3 hours of continuous operation
  • B. 5 hours of continuous operation
  • C. 4 hours of continuous operation
  • D. 6 hours of continuous operation
Answer: A — 3 hours of continuous operation
The LSA Code (4.4.8) requires a lifeboat searchlight with a horizontal and vertical sector of at least 6 degrees and luminous intensity of 2500 cd that can work continuously for not less than 3 hours.

10. If you wished to transmit a voice message concerning the safety of navigation, you would preface it with the word ____.

  • A. Mayday
  • B. Pan-pan
  • C. Securite
  • D. Safety
Answer: C — Securite
Under radio regulations, 'Securite' repeated three times introduces a safety message such as a navigational or meteorological warning. Mayday is for distress and Pan-pan for urgency.

11. When activated, a man overboard marker emits

  • A. Yellow smoke for 15 minutes
  • B. Orange smoke for 3 minutes
  • C. Orange smoke for 15 minutes
  • D. Yellow smoke for 3 minutes
Answer: C — Orange smoke for 15 minutes
The bridge-wing lifebuoy MOB marker combines a self-igniting light and a self-activating smoke signal which, under the LSA Code, emits highly visible orange smoke for at least 15 minutes to mark the position.

12. A telephone in poor working condition creates

  • A. Subjective stress
  • B. Environmental stress
  • C. A mechanical barrier
  • D. Ignorance of media
Answer: C — A mechanical barrier
Faults in the channel or equipment used to send a message, such as a poor telephone line or noisy radio, are mechanical (physical) barriers to communication because they distort or interrupt the message.

13. A ____ look conveys that the person is in a serious mood.

  • A. Stern
  • B. Cheerful
  • C. Stubborn
  • D. Angered
Answer: A — Stern
A stern look is a severe, unsmiling facial expression that shows seriousness or disapproval. Facial expression is an important part of non-verbal communication, alongside gestures and eye contact.

14. Fill in the correct word: I was ____ the television when the bell rang.

  • A. Seeing
  • B. Looking at
  • C. Watching
  • D. Visualising
Answer: C — Watching
In English we 'watch' television, a programme or a moving event, giving continued attention over time. 'See' and 'look at' are not used with television in this sense.

15. Who ensures that the necessary precautions are taken in the engine room?

  • A. Chief Officer
  • B. Chief Engineer
  • C. Second Engineer
  • D. Cadets
Answer: B — Chief Engineer
The Chief Engineer is responsible to the master for the operation and safety of the machinery spaces and ensures that safe working practices and precautions are followed in the engine room.

16. The engine room must be kept ____ for manoeuvring preparations.

  • A. Manned
  • B. Cleaned
  • C. Opened
  • D. Closed
Answer: A — Manned
During standby and manoeuvring the engine room must be manned by engineers so that engine orders can be executed immediately and machinery is monitored, even on ships with UMS notation.

17. A speaker's ____ mannerisms can be distracting for the listener.

  • A. Questioning
  • B. Clarifying
  • C. Responding
  • D. Fidgeting
Answer: D — Fidgeting
Fidgeting, such as playing with a pen or shifting about, is a distracting non-verbal mannerism that draws the listener's attention away from the message. Questioning and clarifying aid communication.

18. Which trait helps speakers to understand that they are being listened to?

  • A. Asking inappropriate questions
  • B. Maintaining eye contact
  • C. Looking at your watch
  • D. Interrupting frequently
Answer: B — Maintaining eye contact
Maintaining eye contact is the main non-verbal sign of attentive listening and reassures the speaker that the listener is engaged and following the message, encouraging them to continue.

19. Why is it necessary to prepare a comprehensive repair specification?

  • A. To give the shipyard the inputs needed to correctly estimate cost and time for their offer and carry out the repairs
  • B. To give ship staff inputs to requisition additional crew for supervising the project
  • C. To give the classification society inputs to depute a suitable surveyor
  • D. To give the shipyard inputs to prepare work completion certificates
Answer: A — To give the shipyard the inputs needed to correctly estimate cost and time for their offer and carry out the repairs
A detailed drydock or repair specification allows yards to quote accurately on cost and duration, lets the company compare offers on the same basis, and reduces extras and delays during the repair period.

20. In severe weather a ship should

  • A. Increase speed and alter course
  • B. Slow down and not alter course
  • C. Slow down or alter course
  • D. Increase speed and not alter course
Answer: C — Slow down or alter course
In heavy weather the master reduces speed and/or alters course to ease pounding, slamming and heavy rolling, avoiding resonance and damage to hull, cargo and crew.

21. When thoughts and ideas are expressed clearly and succinctly in writing,

  • A. The reader learns writing easily
  • B. The reader finds difficulty in reading
  • C. The reader cannot understand the message
  • D. The reader is able to understand the message and the intent of the writer
Answer: D — The reader is able to understand the message and the intent of the writer
Clear, concise writing removes ambiguity, so the reader grasps both the content and the purpose of the message without having to guess, which is essential for instructions and reports on board.

22. The Third Officer informs the ____ to lift the gangway clear of the jetty.

  • A. Third Mate
  • B. Third Engineer
  • C. Chief Officer
  • D. Bosun
Answer: D — Bosun
Before unmooring, the officer in charge tells the bosun, who leads the deck ratings, to heave the gangway clear of the jetty and secure it for sea.

23. What is the basic duty of a bridge watchkeeper?

  • A. To keep track of other ships
  • B. To keep a proper lookout
  • C. To keep sight of the sea
  • D. To keep track by hearing
Answer: B — To keep a proper lookout
COLREG Rule 5 and STCW Section A-VIII/2 require a proper lookout by sight and hearing and all available means at all times. Maintaining a proper lookout is the fundamental duty of the officer of the watch.

24. At what speed should a ship proceed to comply with COLREG?

  • A. A safe speed at all times
  • B. A safe speed at some times
  • C. A safe speed only when the ship starts
  • D. A safe speed only on departure
Answer: A — A safe speed at all times
COLREG Rule 6 requires every vessel to proceed at all times at a safe speed, so that she can take proper and effective action to avoid collision and be stopped within a distance appropriate to the prevailing circumstances.

25. What does PPE stand for?

  • A. Personal Protection Eyewear
  • B. Personal Padded Equipment
  • C. Personal Protective Equipment
  • D. Protection for Personal Equipment
Answer: C — Personal Protective Equipment
PPE means personal protective equipment, such as helmets, safety shoes, gloves, goggles and hearing protection, worn to protect the individual from workplace hazards when other controls are insufficient.

26. What is the primary risk when working in enclosed spaces?

  • A. Hypothermia
  • B. Lack of oxygen
  • C. Claustrophobia
  • D. Difficult egress from the space
Answer: B — Lack of oxygen
Enclosed spaces may be oxygen deficient due to rusting, cargo or inerting, and may contain toxic or flammable gases. IMO Resolution A.1050(27) requires atmosphere testing for at least 21% oxygen before entry.

27. What does the sound of an alarm signify to a watchkeeper?

  • A. Pre-warning of an abnormality
  • B. Man overboard
  • C. Fire on board
  • D. Drill
Answer: A — Pre-warning of an abnormality
Machinery and navigation alarms warn the watchkeeper that a parameter is moving outside its normal range, allowing corrective action before a failure or dangerous situation develops.

28. Freeboard is measured from the upper edge of the ____.

  • A. Bulwark
  • B. Deck line
  • C. Gunwale bar
  • D. Sheer strake
Answer: B — Deck line
Under the Load Line Convention, freeboard is the vertical distance measured amidships from the upper edge of the deck line to the upper edge of the relevant load line.

29. Containers are loaded on board a gearless cellular container ship by

  • A. Union purchase
  • B. Derricks
  • C. Floating cranes
  • D. Shore gantry cranes
Answer: D — Shore gantry cranes
A gearless container ship has no cranes of her own, so containers are handled by shore container gantry cranes, which lower them into the cell guides of the holds and onto the hatch covers.

30. A vessel travelling down a narrow channel, especially if the draft is nearly equal to the depth of water, may have her bow set off the nearer bank. This effect is known as ____.

  • A. Smelling the bottom
  • B. Squatting
  • C. Bank suction
  • D. Bank cushion
Answer: D — Bank cushion
Water building up between the bow and the nearer bank creates a pressure cushion that pushes the bow away from the bank, while the stern is drawn in by bank suction. The effect increases with speed and reduced underkeel clearance.

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