Skip to content
DG Exit Exam
Home PSSR sets
Answer Key

PSSR exit exam questions and answers — Set 26 — Personal Safety & Social Responsibilities

Set 26 of the Personal Safety & Social Responsibilities (PSSR) exit exam bank — 36 of 786 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

Bank last rebuilt .

Practise these PSSR questions PSSR mock exit exam, 30 marks PSSR exit exam sets and syllabus

36 of 36 shown · Set 26

Nothing in this set matches that. Try a shorter word, or search the whole key.

Set 26 — 36 PSSR exit exam questions with answers

1. MLC 2006 lists nine branches of social security. Which of the following is one of them?

  • A. Education allowance
  • B. Employment injury benefit
  • C. Tax exemption
  • D. Housing subsidy
Answer: B — Employment injury benefit
Standard A4.5.1 lists the branches as medical care, sickness benefit, unemployment benefit, old-age benefit, employment injury benefit, family benefit, maternity benefit, invalidity benefit and survivors' benefit. A Member must cover at least three branches on ratification.

2. Under MLC 2006 Regulation 5.1.5, onboard complaint procedures must include safeguards against:

  • A. Victimisation of seafarers for filing complaints
  • B. Port State inspections
  • C. Flag changes
  • D. Overtime claims
Answer: A — Victimisation of seafarers for filing complaints
Regulation 5.1.5 requires ships to have onboard procedures for fair, effective and expeditious handling of seafarer complaints, and prohibits and penalises any kind of victimisation of a seafarer for filing a complaint.

3. Under MLC 2006 Standard A5.1.5, a seafarer making a complaint on board has the right to:

  • A. Have the complaint decided only by the Chief Officer
  • B. Refuse all duties until the complaint is resolved
  • C. Be accompanied or represented during the complaints procedure and to complain directly to the Master and to external authorities
  • D. Receive extra wages for the complaint
Answer: C — Be accompanied or represented during the complaints procedure and to complain directly to the Master and to external authorities
Standard A5.1.5 requires onboard complaint procedures to include the right of the seafarer to be accompanied or represented, and not to prevent the seafarer from complaining directly to the Master and, where they consider it necessary, to appropriate external authorities.

4. Under MLC 2006, the copy of the onboard complaint procedures given to seafarers must include:

  • A. The home address of the Master
  • B. The financial statements of the shipowner
  • C. The ship's cargo plan
  • D. Contact information for the competent authority in the flag State and in the seafarer's country of residence, and the name of a person on board who can give confidential, impartial advice
Answer: D — Contact information for the competent authority in the flag State and in the seafarer's country of residence, and the name of a person on board who can give confidential, impartial advice
Standard A5.1.5.4 requires all seafarers to be provided with a copy of the onboard complaint procedures, including contact information for the flag State and residence-country competent authorities and the names of persons on board who can provide confidential, impartial advice.

5. Under MLC 2006, onboard complaints should normally be resolved:

  • A. Only by port State control
  • B. At the highest level, by the company's board of directors
  • C. Only after the seafarer signs off
  • D. At the lowest level possible
Answer: D — At the lowest level possible
Standard A5.1.5.2 states that onboard complaint procedures should seek to resolve complaints at the lowest level possible, while retaining the seafarer's right to complain directly to the Master and to external authorities.

6. Under MLC 2006, which instrument allows seafarers to make a complaint to an authorised officer in a port of call, even if the ship is foreign-flagged?

  • A. MARPOL Annex VI
  • B. SOLAS Chapter V
  • C. Regulation 5.2.2 on onshore seafarer complaint-handling procedures
  • D. ISPS Code Part A
Answer: C — Regulation 5.2.2 on onshore seafarer complaint-handling procedures
Regulation 5.2.2 requires each Member to ensure that seafarers on ships calling at ports in its territory who allege a breach of the Convention, including seafarers' rights, may report such a complaint to facilitate a prompt and practical means of redress.

7. Which of the following is an example of operational, rather than accidental, pollution from ships?

  • A. Routine discharge of oily bilge water, sewage, garbage and exhaust emissions during normal operation
  • B. Oil released after a grounding
  • C. Cargo lost in a collision
  • D. Fuel spilled from a sinking ship
Answer: A — Routine discharge of oily bilge water, sewage, garbage and exhaust emissions during normal operation
The PSSR syllabus distinguishes operational pollution, which arises from routine ship operations such as discharges of bilge water, ballast, sewage, garbage and engine exhaust, from accidental pollution caused by casualties such as collision, grounding, fire or sinking.

8. Why is oil particularly harmful to seabirds?

  • A. It only affects their eyesight temporarily
  • B. It makes them heavier so they fly faster
  • C. It has no effect because birds avoid oil slicks
  • D. It mats their feathers, destroying insulation and buoyancy, leading to hypothermia and drowning, and is poisonous when swallowed during preening
Answer: D — It mats their feathers, destroying insulation and buoyancy, leading to hypothermia and drowning, and is poisonous when swallowed during preening
Oil coats feathers and destroys their waterproofing and insulating properties, so birds lose body heat and buoyancy. Birds also ingest oil while trying to clean themselves, causing internal damage and poisoning.

9. The transfer of harmful aquatic organisms and pathogens in ships' ballast water is addressed by which convention?

  • A. MARPOL Annex IV
  • B. AFS Convention 2001
  • C. London Convention 1972
  • D. International Convention for the Control and Management of Ships' Ballast Water and Sediments, 2004
Answer: D — International Convention for the Control and Management of Ships' Ballast Water and Sediments, 2004
Ballast water can carry invasive species that establish themselves in new ecosystems and damage biodiversity, fisheries and health. The BWM Convention, in force since 8 September 2017, requires ships to manage ballast water and sediments to prevent such transfers.

10. The AFS Convention 2001 banned the use of which harmful substance in ships' anti-fouling paints?

  • A. Zinc chromate
  • B. Tributyltin (TBT) and other organotin compounds
  • C. Silicone
  • D. Copper oxide
Answer: B — Tributyltin (TBT) and other organotin compounds
The International Convention on the Control of Harmful Anti-fouling Systems on Ships prohibits organotin compounds such as tributyltin, which proved highly toxic to marine life, causing deformities in shellfish and accumulating in the food chain.

11. Excess nutrients from untreated sewage discharged into enclosed coastal waters can cause:

  • A. Lower water temperatures
  • B. Increased oxygen levels and clearer water
  • C. Faster dispersal of oil
  • D. Eutrophication, with algal blooms that deplete dissolved oxygen and kill fish and other marine life
Answer: D — Eutrophication, with algal blooms that deplete dissolved oxygen and kill fish and other marine life
Sewage adds nutrients such as nitrogen and phosphorus and organic matter. In confined waters this promotes algal blooms; when the algae die and decay, oxygen is depleted, creating dead zones, while pathogens in sewage also threaten human health and shellfish.

12. Plastics discharged from ships harm the marine environment mainly because they:

  • A. Persist for very long periods, are ingested by or entangle marine animals, and break down into microplastics that enter the food chain
  • B. Sink immediately and cause no harm
  • C. Dissolve quickly and change water colour
  • D. Increase plankton growth
Answer: A — Persist for very long periods, are ingested by or entangle marine animals, and break down into microplastics that enter the food chain
Plastics are persistent and do not biodegrade readily. Animals such as turtles, seabirds and mammals eat or become entangled in them, lost fishing gear continues to trap animals, and fragments break into microplastics. This is why MARPOL Annex V prohibits discharge of all plastics.

13. Which of the following best describes the complexity of the marine environment as covered in the PSSR syllabus?

  • A. Only coastal areas are affected by pollution
  • B. The sea is so large that it can absorb any amount of waste
  • C. Marine ecosystems such as plankton, coral reefs, mangroves and fisheries are interlinked through food webs, so damage to one part affects others
  • D. Marine life is uniform across all oceans
Answer: C — Marine ecosystems such as plankton, coral reefs, mangroves and fisheries are interlinked through food webs, so damage to one part affects others
The syllabus requires basic knowledge of the complexity and diversity of the marine environment. Plankton form the base of food webs, while coral reefs and mangroves act as nurseries; pollution in one area or species can therefore spread effects throughout the ecosystem.

14. Sea areas designated by IMO for special protection because of their ecological, socio-economic or scientific significance and vulnerability to damage from shipping are called:

  • A. Traffic Separation Schemes
  • B. Areas To Be Avoided only
  • C. Emission Control Areas
  • D. Particularly Sensitive Sea Areas
Answer: D — Particularly Sensitive Sea Areas
Particularly Sensitive Sea Areas are designated by IMO where an area's ecological, socio-economic or scientific attributes are vulnerable to international shipping. Associated protective measures may include routeing measures and discharge restrictions; the Great Barrier Reef was the first, in 1990.

15. Sulphur oxide emissions from ships' exhausts contribute to which environmental problem?

  • A. Ozone layer repair
  • B. Increase in sea level
  • C. Acid rain and harmful fine particulate matter affecting human health and ecosystems
  • D. Ballast water contamination
Answer: C — Acid rain and harmful fine particulate matter affecting human health and ecosystems
Sulphur oxides from burning high-sulphur fuel form sulphate aerosols and acidic deposition, damaging ecosystems, and contribute to fine particulate matter that harms respiratory health in coastal and port areas. MARPOL Annex VI therefore limits fuel sulphur content.

16. What is the main environmental concern addressed by IMO's 2023 Strategy on Reduction of GHG Emissions from Ships?

  • A. Underwater noise
  • B. Oil pollution from tankers
  • C. Garbage in special areas
  • D. Climate change caused by greenhouse gases such as carbon dioxide, with the aim of net-zero emissions from international shipping by or around 2050
Answer: D — Climate change caused by greenhouse gases such as carbon dioxide, with the aim of net-zero emissions from international shipping by or around 2050
Greenhouse gas emissions from burning fossil fuels contribute to global warming and ocean acidification. The 2023 IMO GHG Strategy aims for net-zero GHG emissions from international shipping by or around, that is close to, 2050.

17. Persistent toxic substances that accumulate in the tissues of marine organisms and become more concentrated at higher levels of the food chain illustrate the process of:

  • A. Dispersion
  • B. Bioaccumulation and biomagnification
  • C. Emulsification
  • D. Evaporation
Answer: B — Bioaccumulation and biomagnification
Some pollutants such as heavy metals and certain chemicals are not broken down and build up in organisms. As predators eat contaminated prey, concentrations increase up the food chain, harming top predators, including humans who eat seafood.

18. Accumulation of marine growth on ships' hulls is an environmental concern mainly because it:

  • A. Reduces underwater noise
  • B. Protects the hull from corrosion
  • C. Can transfer invasive aquatic species to new regions and increases fuel consumption and emissions
  • D. Improves fuel efficiency
Answer: C — Can transfer invasive aquatic species to new regions and increases fuel consumption and emissions
Biofouling on hulls and niche areas is a major pathway for introducing invasive aquatic species, and it increases hull resistance and therefore fuel consumption and emissions. IMO has adopted Biofouling Guidelines to help ships manage this risk.

19. The period of the day when the human body's alertness is naturally at its lowest, increasing the risk of fatigue-related errors, is approximately:

  • A. 1200 to 1400 only
  • B. 0800 to 1000
  • C. 0200 to 0600
  • D. 1800 to 2000
Answer: C — 0200 to 0600
Because of the circadian rhythm, alertness and performance are lowest in the early morning hours, roughly between 0200 and 0600, known as the window of circadian low. Watchkeepers on the 0000-0400 watch are particularly vulnerable.

20. Which hormone, released in darkness, signals the body that it is time to sleep and helps regulate the circadian rhythm?

  • A. Adrenaline
  • B. Insulin
  • C. Melatonin
  • D. Cortisol
Answer: C — Melatonin
Melatonin is produced by the brain in response to darkness and promotes sleep. Bright light suppresses it, which is why light exposure and a dark sleeping environment are important in managing circadian rhythms and fatigue on board.

21. The grogginess and reduced performance experienced immediately after waking, especially from deep sleep, is called:

  • A. Sleep inertia
  • B. Microsleep
  • C. Insomnia
  • D. Sleep debt
Answer: A — Sleep inertia
Sleep inertia is a temporary state of reduced alertness after waking, which can last from a few minutes up to around 30 minutes. Seafarers should allow time to become fully alert before taking over a watch or performing critical tasks after sleeping or napping.

22. A very brief, involuntary episode of sleep lasting from a fraction of a second to several seconds, often without the person being aware of it, is known as:

  • A. Sleep inertia
  • B. REM sleep
  • C. A power nap
  • D. A microsleep
Answer: D — A microsleep
Microsleeps occur when a person is severely fatigued. During these brief lapses the person does not respond to information, which can be fatal when on watch, operating machinery or steering. They are a sign that sleep is urgently needed.

23. Which is the only effective long-term way to recover from fatigue?

  • A. Adequate, good quality sleep
  • B. Taking cold showers
  • C. Drinking strong coffee
  • D. Increasing physical exercise
Answer: A — Adequate, good quality sleep
Caffeine, fresh air or exercise may temporarily mask sleepiness but do not remove the underlying need for sleep. IMO Guidelines on Fatigue emphasise that only sufficient sleep of good quality restores alertness and repays sleep debt.

24. Which sleeping environment best promotes good quality sleep on board?

  • A. Near the engine room casing
  • B. Dark, quiet, cool and well ventilated
  • C. Bright, warm and noisy
  • D. With the television on
Answer: B — Dark, quiet, cool and well ventilated
Light, noise, heat and vibration disturb sleep. A dark, quiet, cool and well-ventilated cabin, together with good sleep habits such as avoiding caffeine and heavy meals before sleep, helps seafarers obtain restorative sleep.

25. Normal sleep consists of repeated cycles of non-REM and REM sleep. Approximately how long does one complete sleep cycle last in adults?

  • A. 4 hours
  • B. 10 minutes
  • C. 30 minutes
  • D. 90 minutes
Answer: D — 90 minutes
Sleep progresses through light and deep non-REM stages and REM sleep in cycles of about 90 minutes, repeated several times a night. Interrupted or fragmented sleep, common with watch schedules, prevents the completion of cycles and reduces its restorative value.

26. Why should caffeine be avoided in the hours before a planned sleep period?

  • A. It causes immediate sleep
  • B. It is a stimulant whose effects last several hours and can delay sleep and reduce sleep quality
  • C. It improves deep sleep
  • D. It reduces the need for sleep permanently
Answer: B — It is a stimulant whose effects last several hours and can delay sleep and reduce sleep quality
Caffeine is a stimulant that blocks the body's sleep signals. Its effects persist for several hours, so taking coffee, tea or energy drinks shortly before rest can make it harder to fall asleep and reduce sleep quality, adding to fatigue.

27. Most adults need about how much sleep in each 24-hour period to remain fully alert?

  • A. 7 to 9 hours
  • B. 11 to 12 hours
  • C. 5 hours
  • D. 3 to 4 hours
Answer: A — 7 to 9 hours
Adults generally need 7 to 9 hours of sleep per 24 hours. Getting less than this night after night builds a sleep debt that reduces alertness and performance and increases the risk of errors and accidents.

28. Which of the following is a sign that a seafarer is becoming dangerously fatigued?

  • A. Increased appetite only
  • B. Improved memory and quick reactions
  • C. Feeling cold in the morning
  • D. Difficulty concentrating, slow reactions, irritability, poor judgement and repeated yawning or heavy eyelids
Answer: D — Difficulty concentrating, slow reactions, irritability, poor judgement and repeated yawning or heavy eyelids
Fatigue affects mental and physical performance. Warning signs include inability to concentrate, slowed reactions, forgetfulness, irritability, poor decision-making and visible sleepiness. A fatigued seafarer should inform the officer in charge.

29. In the Tuckman model of team development, the stage where members test boundaries and disagreements emerge over roles and methods is called:

  • A. Storming
  • B. Performing
  • C. Forming
  • D. Norming
Answer: A — Storming
Tuckman's stages are forming, storming, norming and performing. Storming is the stage of conflict as members assert ideas and test the leader; handled well, it leads to agreed norms and an effective, performing team.

30. Which conflict-handling approach aims for a win-win solution that satisfies the concerns of both parties?

  • A. Competing
  • B. Accommodating
  • C. Avoiding
  • D. Collaborating
Answer: D — Collaborating
Collaborating combines high assertiveness with high cooperation: both parties work together to find a solution that fully addresses each other's concerns. It takes time but produces the most durable resolution of conflicts.

31. When a conflict arises between two crew members, it is generally best to:

  • A. Discuss it openly at mealtimes with the whole crew
  • B. Report only the person you dislike
  • C. Address it early and privately, focusing on the problem and facts rather than personalities
  • D. Let it continue until the end of the voyage
Answer: C — Address it early and privately, focusing on the problem and facts rather than personalities
Unresolved conflict on board affects morale, communication and safety. Effective conflict resolution involves dealing with issues promptly, in private, listening to both sides, focusing on behaviour and facts and agreeing a way forward.

32. Which behaviour is an example of being assertive rather than aggressive?

  • A. Keeping quiet to avoid disagreement
  • B. Stating your views clearly and respectfully while listening to others
  • C. Shouting to make your point heard
  • D. Threatening a colleague who disagrees
Answer: B — Stating your views clearly and respectfully while listening to others
Assertiveness means expressing one's opinions, needs and concerns openly and honestly while respecting others. It is important for safety, for example when a junior must challenge an unsafe order, and differs from aggression, which disregards others.

33. On a ship with a multinational crew, good working relationships are best promoted by:

  • A. Allowing each nationality to work only with its own group
  • B. Requiring everyone to adopt the customs of the majority nationality
  • C. Respecting cultural and religious differences, using a common working language and avoiding stereotypes
  • D. Avoiding any social contact
Answer: C — Respecting cultural and religious differences, using a common working language and avoiding stereotypes
Mixed-nationality crews are common. Respect for different cultures and religions, use of the common working language, sensitivity to differences in communication style and avoiding stereotypes build trust and teamwork on board.

34. Which of the following best describes 'leading by example' on board?

  • A. Senior personnel consistently following safety rules and showing respect, encouraging others to do the same
  • B. Avoiding contact with juniors
  • C. Delegating all hazardous work
  • D. Giving orders without explanation
Answer: A — Senior personnel consistently following safety rules and showing respect, encouraging others to do the same
Behaviour of leaders sets the standard for the team. When senior officers wear PPE, follow procedures and treat others with respect, juniors are more likely to follow, creating a positive safety and working culture.

35. Which conflict-handling approach involves one party giving up its own concerns to satisfy the other?

  • A. Collaborating
  • B. Compromising
  • C. Competing
  • D. Accommodating
Answer: D — Accommodating
Accommodating is cooperative but unassertive: one party yields to the other. It may be useful to preserve relationships over minor issues, but if used habitually it can leave concerns unresolved and lead to resentment.

36. Which of the following contributes most to a sense of trust within a shipboard team?

  • A. Honest, consistent communication, keeping commitments and supporting one another
  • B. Criticising colleagues in their absence
  • C. Frequent changes to agreed plans without notice
  • D. Keeping information to oneself
Answer: A — Honest, consistent communication, keeping commitments and supporting one another
Trust develops when team members communicate openly, do what they say they will do, admit mistakes and help each other. High-trust teams share information freely, which supports both good relationships and safe operations.

Printing this? Use your browser's Print (Ctrl/⌘ + P) — the buttons, the search box and the site chrome drop out and the questions run on as plain text, so a set fits a few pages. Filter to one set first if you only want that set on paper.

Practise these PSSR questions as a timed paper All 786 PSSR questions and answers PSSR exit exam sets and syllabus All 24 STCW exit exam courses

Send this PSSR answer key to your batch

Send on WhatsApp

More free tools for seafarers

Mariners DigestBrief for seafarers, Tue–SatSIRE PRO: Ship InspectionTanker inspection prepRightShip ProRISQ 3.2 dry-cargo inspection prepCOLREGS ReaderRules of the road, read aloud