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DG Exit Exam
Answer Key

PSSR exit exam questions and answers — Set 7 — Personal Safety & Social Responsibilities

Set 7 of the Personal Safety & Social Responsibilities (PSSR) exit exam bank — 30 of 786 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

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Set 7 — 30 PSSR exit exam questions with answers

1. The displacement of a vessel is:

  • A. The weight of water displaced by the vessel when afloat
  • B. The cubic capacity of the vessel
  • C. The gross tonnage of the vessel
  • D. The deadweight carrying capacity of the vessel
Answer: A — The weight of water displaced by the vessel when afloat
By Archimedes' principle a floating ship displaces a weight of water equal to its own weight. Displacement, in tonnes, is therefore the total weight of the ship and everything on board, unlike gross tonnage, which is a volume measure.

2. What is the appropriate time for using distress flares and rockets?

  • A. Only at night
  • B. Only in the evening
  • C. At one-hour intervals
  • D. Only when there is a chance of being seen by SAR units or a passing ship
Answer: D — Only when there is a chance of being seen by SAR units or a passing ship
Survival craft carry a limited number of pyrotechnics, so they must be used only when a rescue unit or ship is close enough to see them. Firing them at random wastes signals that may be needed when rescuers are actually in sight.

3. Communication between members of a fire-fighting team must be:

  • A. Clear, concise, acknowledged and timely
  • B. Impossible when using breathing apparatus
  • C. By hand signals only, to avoid smoke inhalation
  • D. Clear, detailed, acknowledged and timely
Answer: A — Clear, concise, acknowledged and timely
In fire fighting, messages must be short and clear, acknowledged by the receiver and passed without delay. Long detailed messages waste air and time and are easily misheard through BA masks and radio noise.

4. The flash point of a liquid is the temperature at which the liquid:

  • A. Gives off flammable vapours that can be ignited
  • B. Will burn steadily
  • C. Will explode
  • D. Must be heated before it will flow readily
Answer: A — Gives off flammable vapours that can be ignited
Flash point is the lowest temperature at which a liquid gives off enough vapour to form a flammable mixture with air that ignites momentarily when a flame is applied. Sustained burning occurs at the higher fire point.

5. Fuel oil tank vents are fitted with corrosion-resistant screens to prevent:

  • A. Flames entering the tank through the vent
  • B. Escape of flammable vapours
  • C. Corrosion in the tank vent
  • D. Damage to the ball check
Answer: A — Flames entering the tank through the vent
Vent pipe heads of fuel oil tanks are fitted with corrosion-resistant wire gauze flame screens. The fine mesh absorbs heat and stops an external flame from passing back into the tank and igniting the vapour space.

6. When using a hand-held smoke signal aboard a survival craft, you should activate the signal:

  • A. On the upwind side of the craft
  • B. Inside the craft
  • C. At the stern of the craft
  • D. On the downwind side of the craft
Answer: D — On the downwind side of the craft
A buoyant or hand-held smoke signal should be activated and held on the downwind (leeward) side so that the smoke and any hot particles blow away from the craft and its occupants rather than over them.

7. The volatility of a liquid is the tendency of the liquid to:

  • A. Percolate
  • B. Explode
  • C. Asphyxiate
  • D. Vaporize
Answer: D — Vaporize
Volatility describes how readily a liquid evaporates or vaporizes. Highly volatile liquids such as petrol give off large quantities of vapour even at low temperatures, which increases fire and health hazards.

8. The amount of expansion space to be left in a fuel tank when fuel oil is being received is determined by the:

  • A. Quantity of fuel to be received
  • B. Flash point of the fuel as received
  • C. Fuel temperature as it is received
  • D. Viscosity of the fuel being received
Answer: C — Fuel temperature as it is received
Fuel oil expands as its temperature rises. Ullage left in a tank during bunkering depends on the temperature of the oil received and the temperature it may later reach, to prevent overflow and spillage through vents.

9. The vapours given off by heated fuel oil are heavier than air and are:

  • A. Odourless
  • B. Explosive
  • C. Non-toxic
  • D. Visible
Answer: B — Explosive
Heated fuel oil releases hydrocarbon vapours which are heavier than air, collect in low places and can form an explosive mixture with air. This is why fuel tanks and bilges must be ventilated and ignition sources controlled.

10. The high-level tank overfill alarm installed in the onboard monitoring system must:

  • A. Operate in unison with other alarms
  • B. Be both audible and visual
  • C. Be the same as the overfill alarm
  • D. Sound when the tank is 90% full
Answer: B — Be both audible and visual
A high-level or overfill alarm must give both an audible and a visual warning so that it is noticed even in noisy machinery spaces or when the operator is not watching the panel, allowing transfer to be stopped in time.

11. ALARP stands for:

  • A. Alarm Points on Ships
  • B. All Living Areas and Recreation Places
  • C. As Low As Reasonably Practicable
  • D. Automatic Level Alarm and Relief Point
Answer: C — As Low As Reasonably Practicable
ALARP means As Low As Reasonably Practicable. In risk assessment, risks are reduced until the cost or effort of further reduction is grossly disproportionate to the benefit gained.

12. What are the causes of fatigue?

  • A. Lack of sleep
  • B. Stress
  • C. Excessive workload
  • D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
IMO fatigue guidelines (MSC.1/Circ.1598) identify lack of quality sleep, stress and excessive workload as major causes of fatigue. All of these reduce alertness and increase the risk of accidents on board.

13. Which is the most frequently abused drug in the world?

  • A. Cocaine
  • B. Heroin
  • C. Opiates
  • D. Alcohol
Answer: D — Alcohol
Alcohol is legally and widely available, which makes it the most commonly abused drug worldwide. Its effects on judgement and reaction time are why STCW and company policies set strict limits for watchkeepers.

14. As per STCW 2010, what is the maximum validity of a medical certificate for seafarers?

  • A. 1 year
  • B. 2 years
  • C. 3 years
  • D. 4 years
Answer: B — 2 years
STCW Regulation I/9 limits the validity of a medical fitness certificate to a maximum of two years, or one year if the seafarer is under 18. Colour vision certificates may be valid for up to six years.

15. Which of the following jobs on board requires a hot work permit?

  • A. Mopping the deck
  • B. Cutting or welding on deck
  • C. Cooking in the galley
  • D. All of the above
Answer: B — Cutting or welding on deck
Hot work such as welding, cutting and grinding outside the approved workshop produces heat and sparks that can ignite flammable materials, so it must be controlled by a hot work permit with gas testing and fire precautions.

16. Which of the following is used to log all important radio communications on board?

  • A. Garbage record book
  • B. Deck log book
  • C. Engine log book
  • D. GMDSS radio log book
Answer: D — GMDSS radio log book
SOLAS Chapter IV Regulation 17 requires a record of all radio communication incidents connected with safety of life at sea, including distress, urgency and safety traffic, to be kept in the GMDSS radio log.

17. Meteorological warnings consist of:

  • A. Iceberg movement information
  • B. Floating debris reports
  • C. Reports of a vessel on fire or sinking
  • D. Weather information, gale and storm warnings
Answer: D — Weather information, gale and storm warnings
Meteorological warnings broadcast through NAVTEX and SafetyNET give gale, storm and tropical cyclone warnings and weather forecasts. Ice, wreck and debris reports are navigational warnings, while a vessel in distress is distress traffic.

18. How many annexes does the International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships (MARPOL) have?

  • A. Three
  • B. Four
  • C. Eight
  • D. Six
Answer: D — Six
MARPOL has six technical annexes: I oil, II noxious liquid substances in bulk, III harmful substances in packaged form, IV sewage, V garbage and VI air pollution.

19. What does the word RADAR stand for?

  • A. Radio Detection and Ranging
  • B. Radio Directions and Ranging
  • C. Radio Detection and Range
  • D. Radium Detection and Ranging
Answer: A — Radio Detection and Ranging
RADAR is an acronym for Radio Detection And Ranging. It transmits radio pulses and measures the echo to detect targets and determine their range and bearing.

20. Most minor spills of oil products are caused by:

  • A. Equipment failure
  • B. Human error
  • C. Major casualties
  • D. Unforeseeable conditions
Answer: B — Human error
Most small operational spills during bunkering and transfers result from human error such as overfilling, wrong valve settings or poor monitoring. Major casualties cause fewer but larger spills.

21. Which of these statements is correct?

  • A. Used primary cells are to be discarded
  • B. Used primary cells can be recharged
  • C. Used primary cells can be refilled and used
  • D. Used primary cells can be reused after warming
Answer: A — Used primary cells are to be discarded
Primary cells such as dry cells produce electricity by an irreversible chemical reaction and cannot be recharged or refilled. Once exhausted they must be discarded safely, unlike secondary cells such as lead-acid batteries.

22. What must the watchkeeping engineer do periodically while on watch?

  • A. Take routine rounds of the engine room
  • B. Remain at the control console only
  • C. Conduct repairs of any damaged equipment
  • D. None of the above
Answer: A — Take routine rounds of the engine room
STCW Code A-VIII/2 requires the engineering watch to include regular inspections of machinery and steering gear spaces. Periodic rounds let the engineer detect leaks, abnormal noises, temperatures and fire hazards early.

23. A negative attitude, inability to manage time and low self-esteem are examples of which factor that can add to personal stress?

  • A. Environmental factors
  • B. Emotional factors
  • C. Community factors
  • D. Personality factors
Answer: D — Personality factors
Personal traits such as a negative attitude, poor time management and low self-esteem are personality factors. They influence how a seafarer copes with pressure and can increase personal stress.

24. When rescuing a person in a confined space, what must be confirmed before the space can be considered safe to enter?

  • A. Safety lights
  • B. Eye protection
  • C. Fire-retardant gear
  • D. Adequate oxygen in the atmosphere
Answer: D — Adequate oxygen in the atmosphere
A confined space is safe to enter only when its atmosphere has been tested and shows sufficient oxygen (21% by volume) and no toxic or flammable gases. Otherwise rescuers must wear breathing apparatus to avoid becoming casualties.

25. What is the spoken distress signal used over VHF radio?

  • A. Red Alert
  • B. Securite
  • C. Mayday
  • D. Pan Pan
Answer: C — Mayday
MAYDAY spoken three times is the radiotelephone distress signal for grave and imminent danger. PAN PAN is the urgency signal and SECURITE the safety signal.

26. When two vessels collide and remain embedded in each other, what are the greatest risks?

  • A. Fire due to sparks while separating from the other vessel
  • B. Flooding
  • C. Listing
  • D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
Separating embedded vessels can produce sparks that ignite oil or vapours, while withdrawing the bow can open the damage to the sea causing sudden flooding and list. All these risks must be assessed before separating.

27. Who is responsible for paying a fine imposed on the vessel after a crew member is caught abusing drugs?

  • A. Company
  • B. P&I Club
  • C. RPSL company
  • D. The crew member
Answer: D — The crew member
Company drug and alcohol policies and the employment agreement make the individual seafarer liable for fines and penalties arising from his own drug abuse, in addition to dismissal and possible criminal prosecution.

28. What are the hazards of working aloft?

  • A. Falling from height causing injury
  • B. Tools falling from height and injuring personnel below
  • C. Sunburn only
  • D. Both falling from height and falling tools injuring personnel below
Answer: D — Both falling from height and falling tools injuring personnel below
Working aloft exposes the worker to falls from height and also endangers people below from dropped tools or materials. Safety harnesses, tool lanyards and barriers below are required under the Code of Safe Working Practices.

29. The first person who notices a fire in any part of the ship should:

  • A. Sound the fire alarm using the nearest fire alarm call point
  • B. Run to the bridge and alert the duty officer
  • C. Run to the Master's cabin
  • D. Go to the mess room and inform others
Answer: A — Sound the fire alarm using the nearest fire alarm call point
Raising the alarm immediately at the nearest manual call point alerts the whole ship and the bridge at once. Running to inform people in person wastes valuable time while the fire spreads.

30. Crew competency means:

  • A. Proper maintenance of equipment
  • B. Proper hygienic conditions maintained
  • C. Well-trained personnel with proper certification
  • D. Medical fitness certification
Answer: C — Well-trained personnel with proper certification
Competency under STCW means seafarers have the knowledge, skills and training required for their duties and hold the appropriate certificates. Equipment upkeep, hygiene and medical fitness are separate requirements.

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