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DG Exit Exam
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PSSR exit exam questions and answers — Set 8 — Personal Safety & Social Responsibilities

Set 8 of the Personal Safety & Social Responsibilities (PSSR) exit exam bank — 30 of 786 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

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Set 8 — 30 PSSR exit exam questions with answers

1. A seafarer has the right to:

  • A. A correct contract as per the flag-state approved form
  • B. Proper accommodation as specified by ILO/MLC
  • C. Report grievances on board to higher authorities
  • D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
The Maritime Labour Convention 2006 gives seafarers the right to a signed employment agreement, accommodation and recreational facilities meeting Title 3 standards, and access to on-board and onshore complaint procedures.

2. A seafarer's employment contract when joining a ship:

  • A. Can be verbal, as verbal agreements are binding
  • B. Is a written agreement signed by both the seafarer and the shipowner
  • C. Is an agreement signed only by the seafarer
  • D. Is an agreement signed only by the owner
Answer: B — Is a written agreement signed by both the seafarer and the shipowner
MLC 2006 Standard A2.1 requires a Seafarers' Employment Agreement in writing, signed by both the seafarer and the shipowner or representative, with a copy kept by the seafarer.

3. A seafarer's responsibilities on board include:

  • A. Identifying potential emergency situations
  • B. Observing safe working practices to eliminate personal injuries
  • C. Maintaining a good atmosphere and social relationships among shipmates
  • D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
Seafarers contribute to safety by recognising hazards and potential emergencies, following safe working practices and maintaining good relationships, all of which are covered in the PSSR course.

4. What are the effects of drug and alcohol abuse on board?

  • A. It affects the individual's performance
  • B. Criminal proceedings against the individual
  • C. Detention of the vessel
  • D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
Drug and alcohol abuse impairs judgement and performance and can lead to accidents. It may also lead to prosecution of the individual and detention or delay of the vessel by port or customs authorities.

5. General emergencies on board could include:

  • A. Fire or explosion
  • B. Flooding
  • C. Main engine failure
  • D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
Shipboard contingency plans under ISM Code element 8 cover fire and explosion, flooding, and loss of propulsion or steering, since any of these can endanger the ship, crew and environment.

6. Continuous working in enclosed spaces requires:

  • A. 18% oxygen continuously
  • B. 19% oxygen continuously
  • C. No oxygen check, as the blowers run continuously
  • D. 21% oxygen continuously
Answer: D — 21% oxygen continuously
IMO Recommendations for entering enclosed spaces (Res. A.1050(27)) require a steady oxygen reading of 21% by volume, with continuous ventilation and periodic or continuous monitoring while people are inside.

7. Before entering an enclosed space, the checks have to be done by:

  • A. A responsible officer
  • B. The person entering the space
  • C. The Master only
  • D. Both a responsible officer and the person entering the space
Answer: D — Both a responsible officer and the person entering the space
The responsible officer verifies the permit, atmosphere tests and precautions, but each person entering must also satisfy himself that the space is safe. Entry procedures require both to confirm the checklist.

8. A permit-to-work system is necessary for:

  • A. Ensuring the safety of personnel
  • B. Ensuring the quality of work
  • C. Ensuring resource utilisation
  • D. Reducing paperwork on board
Answer: A — Ensuring the safety of personnel
A permit-to-work system is a formal safety control that ensures hazards are identified and precautions are in place before high-risk work starts, protecting the people doing the job and others nearby.

9. The duties of crew on board vessels include ensuring:

  • A. Their own health and safety and that of other persons
  • B. Use of personal protective equipment
  • C. Safe working practices
  • D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
Every seafarer must take care of his own health and safety and that of others, use the PPE provided and follow safe working practices, as stated in the Code of Safe Working Practices and company SMS.

10. The Maritime Labour Convention (MLC) 2006 entered into force on:

  • A. 1 August 2010
  • B. 1 August 2012
  • C. 20 August 2013
  • D. 10 August 2011
Answer: C — 20 August 2013
MLC 2006 reached its ratification threshold on 20 August 2012 and entered into force twelve months later, on 20 August 2013.

11. What is the most likely cause of suffocation?

  • A. Electrical equipment
  • B. Fall
  • C. Sharp objects
  • D. Lack of oxygen
Answer: D — Lack of oxygen
Suffocation occurs when the body is deprived of oxygen, for example in enclosed spaces where oxygen has been consumed or displaced by inert gas, rust formation or cargo vapours.

12. Which of the following personnel shall not be allowed to carry out work aloft?

  • A. An overweight person
  • B. A person with acrophobia
  • C. A person who is not well rested
  • D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
Persons unfit for working at height include those with fear of heights, those who are fatigued and those whose weight or physical condition makes safe climbing and harness use difficult. Fitness must be assessed before work aloft.

13. Prevention of oil pollution on board is achieved through:

  • A. Use of oil filtering equipment in machinery spaces of all ships
  • B. Use of the Oil Discharge Monitoring and Control System (ODMCS) on tankers
  • C. Incineration of oil waste and sludge, or its disposal ashore
  • D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
MARPOL Annex I requires oil filtering equipment for machinery bilges, ODME on tankers for cargo-area discharges, and sludge tanks with incineration or shore disposal. Together these control operational oil discharges.

14. A Suezmax crude carrier is generally considered to be of the size:

  • A. 80,000 to 119,999 DWT
  • B. 200,000 to 319,999 DWT
  • C. 120,000 to 199,999 DWT
  • D. 55,000 to 79,999 DWT
Answer: C — 120,000 to 199,999 DWT
Suezmax tankers, the largest that can transit the Suez Canal laden, are about 120,000 to 200,000 DWT. Aframax are about 80,000 to 120,000 DWT and VLCCs 200,000 to 320,000 DWT.

15. Who among the following is a support-level member?

  • A. Officer under training (cadet)
  • B. Electrical officer
  • C. Second officer
  • D. Chief officer
Answer: A — Officer under training (cadet)
STCW defines management, operational and support levels. Chief and second officers and electro-technical officers hold operational or management-level certificates, while a trainee cadet works at the support level under supervision.

16. What does Annex III of MARPOL 73/78 deal with?

  • A. Harmful substances carried in packaged form
  • B. Sewage
  • C. Noxious liquid substances in bulk
  • D. Air pollution
Answer: A — Harmful substances carried in packaged form
MARPOL Annex III covers prevention of pollution by harmful substances carried by sea in packaged form, including packing, marking, labelling, documentation and stowage requirements linked with the IMDG Code.

17. As per SOLAS Chapter III Regulation 19 on drills, which of the following is correct?

  • A. Every crew member shall participate in at least one abandon ship drill and one fire drill every month
  • B. Drills shall be held within 24 hours of leaving port if more than 25% of the crew have not participated in drills on board in the previous month
  • C. Drills shall be held before sailing when a ship enters service for the first time, after a major modification or when a new crew is engaged
  • D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
SOLAS III/19.3 requires monthly abandon ship and fire drills for every crew member, drills within 24 hours of departure if over 25% of crew have not taken part in the previous month, and drills before sailing for new or modified ships or new crews.

18. What method should be used when hauling survivors out of the sea when their condition is critical?

  • A. Using a lifebuoy
  • B. Using a heaving line
  • C. Using the painter
  • D. Using nets or a horizontal lifting device
Answer: D — Using nets or a horizontal lifting device
Hypothermic survivors lifted vertically can suffer circulatory collapse. Scrambling nets, rescue nets or slings allowing a horizontal or near-horizontal lift are recommended in the IAMSAR Manual for recovering critically weak survivors.

19. Your vessel has been in a collision and you are not sure whether she is sinking. How will you handle the situation?

  • A. Abandon the vessel and stay at least 5 nautical miles away
  • B. Search for missing persons and continue to monitor the situation
  • C. Make sure the lifeboat carries as much fuel as possible
  • D. Wait and see how the situation develops
Answer: B — Search for missing persons and continue to monitor the situation
After a collision the crew should be mustered and missing persons searched for, while damage, soundings and stability are monitored continuously. The ship should not be abandoned prematurely, as she is often the safest survival craft.

20. What is the main danger when working beneath falling objects?

  • A. Head injury
  • B. Falls
  • C. Burns
  • D. Eye injury
Answer: A — Head injury
Tools or materials dropped from above most commonly strike the head, which is why safety helmets are mandatory when working below overhead work or in holds and engine rooms.

21. At sea, if someone falls overboard and you do not know over which side the person fell, you should:

  • A. Immediately reverse the engines
  • B. Stop the propeller from turning and throw a lifebuoy over the side
  • C. Increase to full speed to get the vessel away from the person
  • D. First put the rudder hard over in either direction
Answer: B — Stop the propeller from turning and throw a lifebuoy over the side
If the side is unknown, swinging the stern could drive the propeller towards the person. Stopping the propeller protects the casualty, and a lifebuoy dropped immediately gives flotation and marks the position.

22. If you are in charge of a fire team, what is the minimum number of persons wearing BA sets that you will allow to enter a smoke-filled compartment?

  • A. Three persons
  • B. Two persons
  • C. One person
  • D. Four persons
Answer: B — Two persons
BA wearers must always work in pairs so that each can watch and assist the other. A single wearer entering a smoke-filled space has no immediate help if his set fails or he is injured.

23. In case of injury to personnel, which of the following actions may be taken?

  • A. Give first aid
  • B. Obtain radio medical advice
  • C. Request helicopter assistance if required
  • D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
Immediate first aid is given on board, radio medical advice is obtained through TMAS for guidance, and for serious cases medical evacuation by helicopter may be arranged. The response depends on the severity of the injury.

24. What is the most likely cause of a particle in the eye?

  • A. Flying dust
  • B. Fall
  • C. Sharp objects
  • D. Lack of oxygen
Answer: A — Flying dust
Dust, rust and chips thrown up by wind, chipping or grinding are the commonest cause of foreign bodies in the eye. Safety goggles must be worn during such work.

25. Which of the following is a man-overboard manoeuvre?

  • A. Neil Robertson turn
  • B. Williamson turn
  • C. Hard to port
  • D. Hard to starboard
Answer: B — Williamson turn
The Williamson turn brings the ship back onto its original track on a reciprocal course, which makes it effective for recovering a person who fell overboard some time ago. A Neil Robertson is a stretcher, not a manoeuvre.

26. Your vessel has been in collision with another vessel and is taking in water. How will you act?

  • A. Jump overboard immediately and be ready
  • B. Collect your own personal belongings
  • C. Assist your friends to collect their personal belongings
  • D. Send a distress message and collect the immersion suits and thermal protective aids
Answer: D — Send a distress message and collect the immersion suits and thermal protective aids
A distress alert must be sent early so that help is on its way, and immersion suits and thermal protective aids should be collected in preparation for possible abandonment. Personal belongings waste time.

27. Which of the following affects good communication on board?

  • A. Seafarers come from different countries and cultures
  • B. Knowledge of English may not be the same for everyone
  • C. Verbal communication in a noisy engine room
  • D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
Multinational crews, varying English proficiency and noisy environments are all barriers to effective communication. Recognising them helps use closed-loop communication and standard phrases to avoid misunderstanding.

28. Contingency plans should identify the various types of emergencies which may arise on a particular ship and may include:

  • A. Allocation of duties and responsibilities
  • B. Action to be taken to regain control of the situation
  • C. Communication methods within and outside the ship
  • D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
Under ISM Code element 8 and its guidelines, emergency plans assign duties, describe actions to regain control and set out internal and external communication, including contact with the company.

29. What is the most likely cause of cuts?

  • A. Flying dust
  • B. Fall
  • C. Sharp objects
  • D. Too much noise
Answer: C — Sharp objects
Cuts and lacerations are caused mainly by sharp edges, knives, broken glass and sheet metal. Suitable gloves and proper handling of tools reduce the risk.

30. Which of the following is NOT a relevant precaution when entering dangerous spaces?

  • A. A risk assessment must be completed after identifying the hazards
  • B. The atmosphere should be tested
  • C. Communication need not be checked
  • D. A permit-to-work system should be used
Answer: C — Communication need not be checked
Enclosed space entry procedures require risk assessment, atmosphere testing, a permit and an agreed, tested communication system between the entrants and the attendant. Neglecting communications is never an acceptable practice.

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