VITC exit exam questions and answers — Vertical Integration Course for Trainer

1. Although the 1978 STCW Convention established good principles, the exception to the factor that reduced the effectiveness of the Convention is___________

• A. The lack of interest in the Maritime profession and attitudes of seafarers.
• B. The public concern regarding human errors in shipping disasters.
• C. A mix of different education and training backgrounds of multinational manning.
• D. The faster turn round of ships and reduced manning scales.

2. The 2006 amendments to Part A of the code , introducing, inter alia, new measures pertaining to 'ship security officers' were adopted by IMO and entered into force on;

• A. 1st January 2007
• B. 1st January 2009.
• C. 1st January 2006
• D. 1st January 2008

3. The International Convention on STCW 1978 entered into force on________

• A. 28th April 1978
• B. 28th April 1984
• C. 1st December 1992
• D. 7th July 1978

4. Recommended guidance regarding provisions of the STCW Convention and its annex are given in;

• A. STCW Code B
• B. STCW Code A.
• C. STCW Convention
• D. STCW Code A and STCW Code B

5. Mandatory Standards regarding provisions of the annex to the STCW Convention given in Part A has

• A. Six Chapters
• B. Eight chapters
• C. Nine chapters
• D. Seven chapters

6. Level of Competence -2, termed as 'operational level' is a broad range of varied activities performed in a variety of contexts, which are complex and non-routine. This is done under the direction of;

• A. An individual serving in the operational level with sufficient seniority .
• B. A group of individuals capable of giving guidance, basis their experience.
• C. An individual at the management level for that area of responsibility.
• D. The executives from the top management ashore, having adequate authority.

7. The 1994 amendments relating to Global Maritime Distress and safety systems (GMDSS) on STCW convention 1978 was adopted by IMO on;

• A. 7th July 1995
• B. 1st December 1992
• C. 1st December 1991.
• D. 1st January 1991

8. The IMO conference which adopted resolutions numbering from 1 to 19 was in,

• A. Malmo in Sweden
• B. London in United Kingdom
• C. Manila in Philippines
• D. Geneva in Switzerland

9. conference of parties to the 1978 STCW convention was convened in June 2010 , to consider amendments to the 1978 STCW Convention and STCW Code

• A. London in United Kingdom
• B. Manila in Philippines
• C. Geneva in Switzerland.
• D. New York in the United States of America

10. The purpose of competency examinations for seafarers is to;

• A. Assess the capacity of the seafarers to face the tough weather conditions at sea.
• B. Measure the capability of a seafarer in handling exigencies at sea.
• C. Assess the adequacy of training, knowledge, experience, skill and practical competence of seafarers.
• D. Verify the expertise of the seafarer in operating a wide range and a diversified fleet of ship

11. One of the key components of competence-based standards and qualifications is the assessment process. Assessment in the Maritime sector is the process of,

• A. Finding the most talented candidates , capable to pursue the profession
• B. Filtering and elimination of candidates, so as to increase competence.
• C. Evaluation of candidates as per the industry needs .
• D. Obtaining and comparing evidence of competence with the required standards.

12. In a competence-based assessment and certification system. individuals achieve a certificate, when they can;

• A. Impress the assessors with their experiences and activities performed at sea.
• B. persuade for a favorable consideration due to existing job vacancies
• C. Convince the assessors of their capabilities to handle exigencies at sea
• D. Demonstrate performance, which meets all the required competence standards

13. In the matching and judging stages of competence-based assessment, the following guidelines are helpful:

• A. Sufficient evidence is generated in abnormal or unrealistic conditions.
• B. The assessment process should be generic and comparable with other candidates
• C. Both the assessor and candidate should be in a serious and tense stature during the assessment periods
• D. Evidence should be traceable to the source and kept on record.

14. Speakers , whether lecturers or instructors , while teaching in class should take care

• A. to never pause or stop while speaking.
• B. to be strict and serious on the subject, with no expressions.
• C. to look at the class and keep eye contact with students.
• D. to read everything in the book or notes, missing none.

15. Trainees are more likely to remember learning activities that use more of their senses. Trainees remember

• A. 50% of material they say
• B. 10% of material they see
• C. 30% of material they read
• D. 20% of material they hear

16. Seating arrangements can have an important influence on communication in the classroom. Arrangement with the best eye contact with all students will be a

• A. Lecture Theatre type arrangement
• B. Double "U" type arrangement.
• C. 'U' type arrangement.
• D. Classroom type arrangement

17. Instructors should be aware of the "body language" in the class and that his/her movement sends a message to their trainees of the

• A. method of trainer to attract attention.
• B. expectations of the organisation from the trainees.
• C. requirements of the trainer from the trainees.
• D. confidence and experience of the trainer

18. The capabilities achieved by the trainee at the end of a course, is a measure of

• A. the learning and knowledge of the course contents acquired by the trainee.
• B. the knowledge and understanding of the trainer on the subject.
• C. the method used by the trainer in teaching the subject.
• D. the facilities allotted by the Institute to provide the training.

19. Amongst the most common teaching aids used in a classroom, the oldest is a

• A. Magnetic board.
• B. Chalkboard
• C. Flipchart
• D. Whiteboard

20. The advantage of the fixed or roller type of chalkboards is that

• A. for some persons, it can cause dust allergy.
• B. it is spacious and easy to write and draw at a comfortable height.
• C. corrections can be made every now and then.
• D. students will copy the contents, before it is robbed off.

21. As a part of training, suitable audio-visual materials should be presented for the trainee instructors to review. The main purpose of screening such videos-films shall be to

• A. spent a part of the class time to avoid fatigue and concentration losses.
• B. make the trainees answer a set of suitable questions after viewing the material.
• C. make the teaching process easier with minimum effort and time
• D. divert attention of the trainees from the subject, if found lengthy.

22. A most effective training session can be conducted with a selection of slides made available and

• A. the trainee to review the slides and inform trainer a list of corrections to be done.
• B. the trainer showing the slides for the trainees to view and understand themselves.
• C. the trainee to view the slides when convenient and ask doubts if any from the trainer.
• D. the trainee to prepare a preferred order for showing the slides with a brief commentary, which is to be reviewed

23. The main objective of selecting the most appropriate teaching aids for the sessions shall be

• A. to reduce the contribution by the trainer in the teaching process .
• B. to make the teaching process more effective with appropriate end results.
• C. to keep the training expenses as low as possible, irrespective of the quality of training.
• D. to reduce the period of training with substantial financial savings

24. In a class question answer session, the trainer should conduct the class ideally by

• A. punishing or insulting students giving wrong answers
• B. allowing all the students to answer together, to get the majority answer
• C. allowing the willing students only to answer every time.
• D. asking questions individually, giving equal importance to all students.

25. The effect of a lecture delivered in the class is largely dependent on;

• A. the clarity, logic and the way the lecture is presented to suit the students understanding
• B. a friendly and cordial approach of the trainer when delivering lectures
• C. the age and the personality of the trainer who is delivering the lecture
• D. the seriousness maintained in delivering the lecture in class.

26. The introduction of 'games' in teaching methods is considered effective mainly,

• A. to remove the element of fatigue and boredom in the class.
• B. to get trainees involved, creating interest in the subject, with an active element of competition
• C. to divert the attention of the class from outside interferences or disturbances.
• D. to comply with the criteria to fill the minimum hours of teaching.

27. Delivering teaching sessions using a variety of styles is an activity designed to ensure that

• A. the instructor is not sure of what method to use
• B. the instructor has a real command of teaching methods
• C. the instructor likes to change methods
• D. the instructor likes to show his prowess

28. One advantage of using 'games' in the teaching process is that,

• A. the instructor can observe the trainees closely and can provide informal lessons .
• B. the method requires a great deal of classroom control and infrastructure.
• C. these games are not always simple and causes complication for assessments
• D. commercially available games may not be suitable or can be too costly.

29. What is considered as a significant advantage in using simulator as a teaching aid?

• A. Simulators are expensive and require adequate number of student's enrolment continuously.
• B. Supervision can be difficult and is a time consuming exercise .
• C. Students while working on simulators are aware that it is not a real situation and can afford to make mistakes
• D. Simulation provides an ideal method for trainees to gain experience of dangerous or unusual situations.

30. In the beginning of a class, the instructor should cover the following:

• A. Compare with otber courses
• B. An overview of the Lesson
• C. Career prospects after the course
• D. Background of the course

1. In the beginning of a class, the instructor should cover the following

• A. Compare with other courses
• B. A statement of the end product of the lesson
• C. Career prospects after the course
• D. Background of the course

2. A lesson plan should include

• A. Student identification system
• B. Length of lesson
• C. Capacity of the class room
• D. Classroom size

3. A lesson plan should include

• A. Capacity of the class room
• B. Student identification system
• C. Subject
• D. Classroom size

4. A lesson plan should include

• A. Time for each element of the lesson
• B. Capacity of the classroom
• C. Student identification system
• D. Classroom size

5. Trainees can be evaluated to

• A. check attitude
• B. test understanding
• C. check intelligence
• D. check performance

6. Quality standards system activities would include

• A. approval of access to the institute
• B. approval of training courses
• C. approval of institute aesthetics
• D. approval of staff presentability

7. Quality standards system activities would include

• A. assessment of competence
• B. approval of staff presentability
• C. approval of institute location
• D. approval of access to the institute

8. Quality standards system activities would include

• A. approval of staff presentability
• B. approval of access to the institute
• C. approval of institute aesthetics
• D. certification, endorsement and revalidation

9. One of the main types of formative evaluation is

• A. writing essays
• B. listing out sources of information
• C. making powerpoint presentations
• D. practical tests

10. Education means the

• A. preparation for a bright future
• B. preparation for a specific job
• C. preparation for a career
• D. preparation for an easy life

11. Training means the

• A. preparation for a bright future
• B. preparation for a career
• C. preparation for a specific job
• D. preparation for an easy life

12. For feedback to be effective it should be given

• A. as soon as possible
• B. after a week.
• C. after a few days
• D. after a month

13. Perception is what gives us our ability to

• A. observe the neighbours
• B. observe the world
• C. observe other students
• D. observe the scenery

14. The main area in which training can operate is

• A. the atmosphere
• B. surroundings
• C. Knowledge
• D. the environment

15. Assessment is about making judgements, and involves reviewing evidence presented to make a confident and ideal decision, such as

• A. Competent or "Incompetent".
• B. "Competent" or "not yet competent".
• C. "Passed or Failed°
• D. "Qualified subject to verification".

16. Requirements relating to training in modern technology, such as electronic charts and information system ( ECDIS) was included in the,

• A. STCW 1995 amendments
• B. STCW Convention 1978
• C. The 2010 Manila amendments
• D. The 2004 amendments to part A of the STCW Code

17. Competence standards are formulated to enable:

• A. The industry to specify its requirements with training programs based on such standards.
• B. Reduce manpower requirements and their training expenses.
• C. The industry to amend them, so as to survive during any financial crisis.
• D. Remain commercially viable even with stiff competition

18. The 2010 amendments to the STCW Convention and STCW code made, no changes or amendments, on the following:

• A. Requirements on hours of work and rest.
• B. Requirements on prevention of drug and alcohol abuse.
• C. Structure and goals of 1995 amendments .
• D. New training and certification requirements and methodologies.

19. Few aspects of the teaching and learning process which the trainer should emphasise to the trainee instructors includes following,

• A. Approaches for teaching adults and children may be similar.
• B. Adult's experiences, useful to the group may be used in the teaching process.
• C. No disparity is required while teaching adults and children in a class.
• D. Utilise traditional teaching methods whenever possible.

20. An effective , all-round and quick method of assessment, independent of any bias on the part of the assessor will be

• A. Written type tests
• B. Oral examination
• C. Short answer tests
• D. Practical tests

21. In the Table with the specification of minimum standard of competence, Column 2 of the STCW Code illustrates,

• A. the entire knowledge to be provided on the subject with adequate understanding .
• B. monitoring of performance and evaluvation of competence.
• C. examination and assessments with appropriate evidences.
• D. subject matter for which competence is to be considered

22. Research suggests that trainees are more likely to remember 90% of what,

• A. they say and do
• B. they see and read
• C. they hear and see
• D. they say

23. As a part of training and assessment, the trainees should ideally be given tasks that are

• A. exhaustive, but to be accomplished without fail.
• B. challenging, but achievable in due course.
• C. difficult and with no other alternatives.
• D. tough with limited time to complete

24. The specification of minimum standard of competence, as given in the tables in Part A of the STCW Code illustrates in columns 1 to 4 in that order.

• A. Criteria for evaluating competence, Methods of demonstrating competence, Knowledge with understanding and proficiency and Competence.
• B. Methods of demonstrating competence, Knowledge with understanding and proficiency and criteria for evaluating competence and Competence.
• C. Knowledge with understanding and proficiency, criteria for evaluating competence, Methods of demonstrating competence and Competence.
• D. Competence, Knowledge with understanding and proficiency, Methods of demonstrating competence and criteria for evaluating competence.

25. A training package using Information technology (IT) is preferred for training and assessments, after considering

• A. if the trainers are interested in adopting such training methods.
• B. if it is a useful package and it represents an effective use of the trainee instructors time.
• C. if the trainees are willing to accept the methodology with IT for training.
• D. If the ship-owners will accept seafarers trained with the IT training package.

26. Models (like ship models, buoys, engine parts etc.) can ideally be used as a teaching aid during the classes. It has various usages and effects. i.e.

• A. Trainees can identify the parts without any assistance from the trainers.
• B. Models are abundantly available in the market and can be easily replaced.
• C. Models are complex and may defer from the actual structures or items onboard ship.
• D. A demonstration with the Model and explanation by the trainer will remain in the memory of the trainee more effectively.

27. Ideal circumstances under which , handouts on a subject is issued to the trainees

• A. Where the trainer finds it an easier and less troublesome method to teach.
• B. When there is insufficient time available for trainees to copy, information from a board.
• C. Trainees can be taught and assessed with the handouts simultaneously.
• D. Trainees can be released from the class and made to do self study.

28. Though, magnetic boards are not common, they are ideal for

• A. teaching subjects on Magnetism.
• B. showing movements(ROR classes) and demonstrations.
• C. taking classes in a small room.
• D. a large class room with many students.

29. Overhead projectors have been in use for many years. However one disadvantage of using overhead projector (OHP) is

• A. that transparencies can be made to suit the exact requirements of the lesson.
• B. that OHP can get misaligned and the fan may get heated up.
• C. that once transparencies are made, they last for a long time
• D. the instructor can face the trainees with no obstructions, to observe their reactions.

30. A role play is a student-directed activity in which trainees act out or dramatize a particular situation, circumstance, or idea. It must be included in the teaching process, so that

• A. some trainees who do not like participating, may be excluded from the exercise
• B. a long time can be spent in arranging and doing the exercise.
• C. trainers will only act as a role model in the exercise.
• D. it involves a high level of trainee participation and help trainees to prepare for a real situation

1. While discussing teaching methods and styles, in the question answer session. the trainees should

• A. be briefed on the method and benefits of asking relevant questions .
• B. be advised to encourage only closed ended questions.
• C. be instructed to restrict and control question answer sessions in class.
• D. identify and reject wrong or debatable questions, with no discussions.

2. Case study is a teaching method wherein learning takes place by discussion of the various aspects of a situation or problem. Specify a feature for making the case study.

• A. The Incident need not be well illustrated or properly structured.
• B. The subject need not contain background, the event or the key aspects of the case.
• C. An incident which has actually taken place shall be avoided for the case study.
• D. Use relevant and realistic cases or incidents which encourage the trainee to think about the situations.

3. Amongst alternate methods of teaching 'team teachings' are useful wherein two lecturers give the presentation jointly. Its advantages are as follows.

• A. Larger rooms with adequate stage space will have to be created for two persons.
• B. Vulnerable to communication problems between the two lecturers.
• C. Each instructor needs fewer preparations, works in his/her area of expertise and the combined lecture will be interesting and useful.
• D. The coordination and time allowed between the lecturers need close monitoring.

4. In which of the training method is the student required to find the information compile them, give a presentation and join the discussions.

• A. Seminars.
• B. Practical teaching.
• C. Tutorials.
• D. Blended teaching.

5. When a trainee asks a question for which the instructor doesn't have an immediate answer, he/she should

• A. respond immediately with the answer known to the trainer, right or wrong.
• B. start referring to the books and notes available, to find the answer.
• C. advise the trainee where to find the answer or offer to revert with the answer soon.
• D. find fault with the trainee and scold him/her for disturbing the class.

6. In the beginning of a class, the instructor should cover the following:

• A. Career prospects after the course
• B. Background of the course
• C. A description of how the lesson will be conducted
• D. Compare with other courses

7. A lesson plan should include

• A. Classroom size
• B. Objectives of the lesson
• C. Capacity of the classroom
• D. Student identification system

8. A lesson plan should include

• A. Classroom size
• B. Teaching Method
• C. Capacity of the classroom
• D. Student identification system

9. Evaluation and assessment are undertaken in order to

• A. to check how well student has performed
• B. to check if the student has understood the course objective
• C. to bestow a honour
• D. issue a qualification

10. An essential step to take to ensure the good quality of an operation is to

• A. employ good staff
• B. have good premises
• C. have a large accessible area in the institute
• D. establish clear policies and standards governing staff quality

11. An essential step to take to ensure the good quality of an operation is to

• A. ensure that staff participate fully in the development of the system
• B. have good premises
• C. have a large accessible area in the institute
• D. employ good staff

12. One of the main types of formative evaluation is

• A. writing essays
• B. Question and answer sessions
• C. making powerpoint presentations
• D. listing out sources of information

13. Trainees can be evaluated to

• A. to check how well they has performed
• B. to check if they have understood the course objective
• C. ensure they have the knowledge and skills
• D. to inflate their ego

14. One of the main types of formative evaluation is

• A. writing essay
• B. making powerpoint presentations
• C. assignments
• D. listing out sources of information

15. A step to be considered for a systematic approach to training is

• A. design the course
• B. check classroom size
• C. check number of students
• D. check the training aids

16. When designing a new course for seafarers, the instructor should

• A. identify an easy course to design
• B. check with shipping companies
• C. ask seafarers their requirement
• D. identify the specific competencies required by the STCW convention

17. The factor desired in a successful instructor is being

• A. keen to instruct
• B. keen to instil strict discipline
• C. keen to be friendly
• D. keen to impress

18. A step to be considered for a systematic approach to training is

• A. check number of students
• B. set training objectives
• C. check classroom size
• D. check the training aids

19. Training courses are

• A. for desk jobs
• B. for unskilled jobs
• C. skill based
• D. for white collar jobs

20. Performance is a measure of

• A. how well tasks are carried out
• B. how fast jobs are done
• C. how easily jobs are done
• D. how costs are reduced

21. During the competent based assessment, if the candidate is found to have 'performance gaps', the most ideal action is to;

• A. Give a feedback on such failure to the candidate and ensure the rectification process
• B. Immediately disqualify the candidate in the test, irrespective of the seriousness of the errors
• C. Give a customary warning to the candidate, followed by qualification in the test
• D. Debar the candidate from appearing for future assessment

22. Towards 'review and follow up', the competence based assessment process may reveal the candidate's 'performance gaps', which is an indication of:

• A. Adequate opportunity to demonstrate competence, but left unutilized
• B. Lack of experience and knowledge of the candidate in the subject
• C. A candidate with adequate skills, without experience
• D. A candidate having thorough knowledge with lesser understanding

23. When teaching a competence - based course to adult trainees, an instructor should try to

• A. Adapt them to learn with new methodologies and systems
• B. Use high level methods of teaching, being adult trainees
• C. ensure that they keep pace with others in class
• D. Help them to take responsibility for their own learning

24. Motivation is of utmost important in learning and trainees who are extrinsically motivated, do so

• A. For rewards or recognition or promotion or increments
• B. As a passion and challenge their life
• C. To increase their depth of knowledge and understanding
• D. Due to interest to learn new subjects and arenas of knowledge

25. The 1995 amendment to the STCW convention, included new provisions such as;

• A. New training and certification requirements for Electro technical officers
• B. Modern training methodology including distance learning and E-learning
• C. Explicit definition for near-coastal voyages
• D. Introducing training, certification and watch-keeping code

26. The Annex to the STCW Convention, 1978, as amended by the Manila Amendments, is arranged in

• A. Chapters I to VI
• B. Chapters I to IX
• C. Chapters I to VII
• D. Chapters I to VIII

27. Under Section A-I/6 of the STCW Code, a person conducting in-service training of a seafarer intended to be used for certification should:

• A. Have completed at least ten years of sea service in any rank
• B. Hold a university degree in education
• C. Understand the training programme and its specific objectives and be qualified in the task for which training is being conducted
• D. Be a serving master or chief engineer only

28. According to Section A-I/6 of the STCW Code, which of the following is required of an assessor of competence, in addition to knowledge of the competence being assessed?

• A. Being qualified in the task, having received guidance in assessment methods and practice, and having gained practical assessment experience
• B. A minimum of 20 years of sea service
• C. Prior experience as an examiner of the Administration
• D. Membership of a professional body

29. STCW Regulation I/6 requires that training and assessment of seafarers for certification be structured in accordance with:

• A. Verbal instructions of the course-in-charge
• B. The training institute's commercial requirements
• C. The trainee's personal preferences
• D. Written programmes, including methods and media of delivery, procedures and course material

30. How many functions are the STCW Code standards of competence grouped into?

• A. Three
• B. Five
• C. Seven
• D. Nine

1. Under the STCW Code, the 'support level' of responsibility means performing assigned tasks, duties or responsibilities on board:

• A. Under the direction of the shore-based superintendent only
• B. Under the direction of an individual serving at the operational or management level
• C. Without any supervision
• D. Only during port stays

2. The outcome-based (competence-based) approach to maritime training places primary emphasis on:

• A. The textbook used
• B. The number of hours the trainee spends in class
• C. What the trainee is able to do to the required standard at the end of training
• D. The trainee's examination ranking compared with peers

3. In the VICT activity on factors which affect teaching, trainees discussing the instructor's appearance should conclude that:

• A. Only uniform must be worn in every class
• B. Informal dress always improves rapport
• C. Appearance has no effect on teaching
• D. Dress has an effect, and since an instructor may be judged by appearance, an appropriate mode of dress is important

4. The purpose of the VICT activity 'List optimum qualities of instructors and trainees' is to make trainee instructors realise that:

• A. Individual differences must be taken into account when selecting teaching methods and procedures for classroom management and discipline
• B. Instructor qualities are fixed and cannot be developed
• C. Discipline is not the instructor's concern
• D. All trainees learn in exactly the same way

5. Which of the following is most likely to reduce a trainee's ability to learn during a session?

• A. Fatigue, anxiety and an uncomfortable environment
• B. Relating new material to the trainee's experience
• C. Clear lesson objectives stated at the start
• D. Regular checks of understanding

6. An instructor finds that a trainee's prior sea experience conflicts with what is being taught. The most appropriate approach is to:

• A. Ask the trainee to leave the class
• B. Change the syllabus to match the trainee's practice
• C. Acknowledge the experience and use it to explain why the current standard or procedure applies
• D. Ignore the trainee's experience

7. According to the VICT guideline, jargon and technical words used in class should be:

• A. Written only in handouts
• B. Avoided completely
• C. Introduced with a careful explanation of their meanings
• D. Used freely since trainees are seafarers

8. The constructivist theory of learning referred to in the VICT guideline holds that individuals:

• A. Cannot learn without a textbook
• B. Learn best through punishment and reward
• C. Construct meaning and understanding through their prior knowledge and apply it to new situations
• D. Learn only by memorising facts

9. A trainee who studies because he finds the subject interesting and wants to master it is said to be:

• A. Extrinsically motivated
• B. Intrinsically motivated
• C. Negatively reinforced
• D. Externally regulated

10. In Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which need must generally be satisfied first before a trainee can concentrate on learning?

• A. Belonging
• B. Physiological needs such as rest, food and comfort
• C. Self-actualisation
• D. Esteem

11. Which statement best reflects a principle of adult learning (andragogy) relevant to training seafarers?

• A. Adults are motivated by learning that is relevant and problem-centred, and they draw on their own experience
• B. Adults require the instructor to make all decisions about their learning
• C. Adults prefer content with no immediate application
• D. Adults learn best when kept passive

12. In the VICT course, how many hours are allotted to the activity 'Demonstrate the use of various teaching aids'?

• A. 2 hours
• B. 4 hours
• C. 7 hours
• D. 9 hours

13. When selecting a teaching aid, the trainee instructor should particularly consider factors that may:

• A. Obstruct or derail the implementation of class teaching
• B. Reduce the need for lesson planning
• C. Make the lesson longer
• D. Increase the institute's equipment budget

14. A key advantage of a flip chart over a fixed whiteboard is that:

• A. It can display moving images
• B. Sheets can be prepared in advance, kept, and displayed again for reference
• C. It needs no writing materials
• D. It is visible to a much larger audience

15. 'Blended learning', referred to in the VICT reference publications, is best described as:

• A. Teaching two subjects in one session
• B. Using only computer-based training
• C. Combining face-to-face instruction with online or technology-based learning
• D. Mixing trainees of different ranks

16. When using a multimedia projector and slides, good practice for the instructor is to:

• A. Keep the room completely dark throughout
• B. Read every slide word for word with his back to the class
• C. Put as much text as possible on each slide
• D. Keep slides brief and legible, and face the class while talking

17. Which teaching aid is most suitable for showing trainees the actual sequence of a real operation, such as donning a breathing apparatus, that can be replayed?

• A. Chalkboard
• B. Video recording
• C. Printed handout
• D. Magnetic board

18. Why does the VICT guideline require a video camera to be available during the course?

• A. To record the final written examination
• B. To monitor attendance
• C. For security of the classroom
• D. To record and play back the lecture presentations of the participants

19. The first consideration when choosing a teaching aid for a lesson should be:

• A. Whether other instructors use it
• B. Whether it is the latest technology
• C. Whether it helps achieve the lesson's learning objectives for that group of trainees
• D. Its cost

20. When questioning a class orally, the technique generally recommended to keep all trainees thinking is to:

• A. Name the trainee first and then ask the question
• B. Always allow the same trainee to answer
• C. Ask the question to the whole class, pause, and then name a trainee to answer
• D. Answer the question yourself immediately

21. Which type of question is most useful for encouraging trainees to explain their reasoning?

• A. Closed question
• B. Leading question
• C. Open question
• D. Rhetorical question

22. According to the VICT guideline, the choice of teaching method largely depends on:

• A. The content and the aptitude and enthusiasm of the trainees
• B. The instructor's favourite method
• C. The size of the institute
• D. The time of day

23. A 'demonstration' as a teaching method is most effective when it is followed by:

• A. Distribution of handouts with no practice
• B. Trainees practising the skill under supervision
• C. A long lecture on theory
• D. A written examination only

24. Which of the following is a main limitation of the lecture method?

• A. It requires no preparation
• B. It cannot convey information to a large group
• C. It always takes longer than other methods
• D. Trainees are largely passive and the instructor gets little feedback on understanding

25. According to the VICT guideline, the practical training programme for a workshop or outdoor location must begin with the preparation of a:

• A. Course certificate
• B. Training plan
• C. Feedback form
• D. Final assessment report

26. Which of the following is listed in the VICT guideline as a required element of a practical training programme?

• A. Trainee's medical history
• B. Planned maintenance programme for the equipment
• C. Marketing plan for the course
• D. Hotel accommodation schedule

27. In the steps of a practical training programme laid down in the VICT guideline, what immediately precedes the commencement of the practical exercise with trainees?

• A. Debrief to participants
• B. Securing of equipment
• C. Briefing of trainees
• D. Course feedback

28. According to the VICT guideline, the final step of a practical training programme is:

• A. Preparation of the site
• B. Securing of equipment on completion
• C. Issue of certificates
• D. Debrief to participants

29. Why must operational and safety procedures for use of equipment be part of a practical training programme?

• A. To reduce the number of trainees
• B. To ensure that trainees and staff are protected and equipment is used correctly during exercises
• C. To shorten the briefing
• D. To replace the need for an instructor

30. Before a practical firefighting or survival exercise begins, the instructor should first ensure that:

• A. The equipment and site have been prepared and checked
• B. The trainees have written their assessment
• C. The certificates are printed
• D. The debrief has been completed

1. The main purpose of debriefing participants after a practical exercise is to:

• A. Secure the equipment
• B. Review what happened, reinforce correct actions and identify lessons and areas for improvement
• C. Collect fees
• D. Record attendance

2. A list of equipment with its inventory is included in the practical training programme mainly to:

• A. Calculate the course fee
• B. Ensure that all equipment needed for the exercise is available, accounted for and serviceable
• C. Decide the trainee intake
• D. Prepare the course certificate

3. In Tuckman's model of team development, the stage in which conflict arises as members assert ideas and test roles is called:

• A. Forming
• B. Storming
• C. Norming
• D. Performing

4. In Tuckman's model, the stage at which a team works effectively and largely independently towards its goal is:

• A. Forming
• B. Storming
• C. Norming
• D. Performing

5. Which of the following is a characteristic of an effective team?

• A. Members avoid giving feedback to each other
• B. Shared goal, clear roles, open communication and mutual trust
• C. One member makes all decisions without consultation
• D. Members work towards individual goals only

6. In Belbin's team role model, the 'Completer Finisher' is the member who:

• A. Generates creative new ideas
• B. Polishes work, searches for errors and ensures deadlines are met
• C. Coordinates the team and delegates
• D. Explores outside contacts and opportunities

7. The VICT activity on teamwork is intended to show trainees:

• A. Methods of disciplining team members
• B. The purpose of teams in the work context, characteristics of effective teams, and how to build and maintain them
• C. How to avoid working in teams
• D. How to select team leaders by seniority only

8. When a trainee instructor organises group work in class, the best practice is to:

• A. Give a clear task, time limit and expected output, and monitor the groups
• B. Avoid any reporting back
• C. Give no instructions so groups find their own way
• D. Let one trainee do all the work

9. Which is the main benefit of using team exercises in maritime training?

• A. They develop communication, cooperation and leadership skills needed for shipboard operations
• B. They eliminate individual assessment
• C. They reduce the need for instructors
• D. They shorten the course

10. In the 'forming' stage of a team, members are typically:

• A. Polite, uncertain of their roles and dependent on the leader for direction
• B. Disbanding after completing the task
• C. In open conflict
• D. Highly productive and autonomous

11. A well-written learning objective should use a verb that is:

• A. Vague, such as 'know' or 'appreciate'
• B. Related only to the instructor's actions
• C. Observable and measurable, such as 'state', 'describe' or 'demonstrate'
• D. Always 'understand'

12. A complete performance objective, in addition to the performance itself, normally states:

• A. The cost of the training
• B. The conditions under which it is performed and the standard to be achieved
• C. The textbook chapter only
• D. The instructor's name and the room number

13. The usual structure of a lesson is:

• A. Assessment, introduction, conclusion
• B. Introduction, development (main body), and conclusion/consolidation
• C. Conclusion, development, introduction
• D. Development only

14. When planning a lesson, the VICT guideline asks the trainee instructor to identify first the trainees':

• A. Likely knowledge and competence at the start of the lesson
• B. Salary levels
• C. Preferred seating
• D. Home addresses

15. In the VICT activity on formulating learning outcomes, the important consideration is to understand the link between learning outcomes and:

• A. The institute's prospectus
• B. The STCW Competence Tables
• C. The trainee's rank
• D. The examination timetable

16. In Bloom's revised taxonomy of the cognitive domain, which is the highest level?

• A. Remember
• B. Apply
• C. Evaluate
• D. Create

17. In Kirkpatrick's four-level model of training evaluation, which level measures whether trainees apply what they learned when back on the job?

• A. Reaction
• B. Learning
• C. Behaviour
• D. Results

18. In Kirkpatrick's model, a course feedback form completed by participants at the end of the course mainly measures:

• A. Reaction
• B. Learning
• C. Behaviour
• D. Results

19. In the VICT guideline, 'opportunity to learn' is described as:

• A. The number of holidays in the course
• B. The time between two courses
• C. The overlap between the information that trainees were taught and the information on which they were tested
• D. The trainee's eligibility to join the course

20. The 3P model of teaching and learning by Biggs, recommended in the VICT guideline, consists of:

• A. Plan, Prepare, Present
• B. Presage, Process, Product
• C. Purpose, Practice, Performance
• D. People, Place, Programme

21. Kirkpatrick's Level 4 'Results' evaluates:

• A. Attendance records
• B. The impact of training on organisational outcomes such as fewer incidents or improved performance
• C. Trainees' satisfaction with the course
• D. Test scores at the end of the course

22. According to the VICT learning objectives, the role of quality management in course evaluation is to:

• A. Fix the course fee
• B. Reduce the course duration
• C. Replace assessment of trainees
• D. Maintain a high standard of course delivery

23. An assessment that consistently produces the same result when repeated by different assessors under the same conditions is said to be:

• A. Valid
• B. Reliable
• C. Practical
• D. Formative

24. Competence-based assessment under STCW is best described as:

• A. Based only on attendance
• B. Based on the instructor's general impression
• C. Norm-referenced, ranking candidates against each other
• D. Criterion-referenced, judging the candidate against specified standards of competence

25. Summative assessment is mainly used to:

• A. Diagnose difficulties during the course so teaching can be adjusted
• B. Motivate trainees with informal quizzes
• C. Collect opinions about the course
• D. Make a final judgement of whether the trainee has achieved the required standard

26. When giving feedback to a trainee instructor after a practice teaching session, the most constructive approach is to:

• A. Give only general praise
• B. Give specific comments on strengths and on areas to improve, with suggestions
• C. Delay feedback until the end of the course
• D. Point out only the mistakes

27. According to the VICT guideline, assessment results should be applied to improve:

• A. Only the institute's marketing
• B. The assessment process, the teaching and learning process, or both
• C. Only the timetable
• D. Only the trainee's certificate grade

28. Which method of collecting evaluation data allows anonymous responses from all participants at the end of a course?

• A. Practical test
• B. Individual oral interview
• C. Direct observation
• D. Written questionnaire or survey

29. Feedback to a trainee on assessment performance is most effective when it is:

• A. Personal and critical of the trainee's character
• B. Specific, related to the performance criteria and given promptly
• C. Given only in writing months later
• D. Given in front of the whole class to embarrass the trainee

30. According to the DGS VICT guideline, a trainee who is unsuccessful in the course assessment should be:

• A. Barred from the course permanently
• B. Issued the certificate anyway
• C. Provided additional hands-on training with records maintained, and re-assessed in a subsequent batch assessment
• D. Asked to repeat sea service

1. In an IMO model course, the Instructor Manual is contained in:

• A. Part A
• B. Part B
• C. Part C
• D. Part D

2. 'Backward design' in Wiggins and McTighe's 'Understanding by Design' requires the course designer to begin by:

• A. Choosing classroom activities
• B. Preparing the timetable
• C. Identifying the desired results or learning outcomes
• D. Selecting the textbook

3. IMO model courses are best described as:

• A. Guidance that institutes and Administrations may adapt to local needs, trainee background and resources
• B. Replacements for the STCW Code
• C. Examination papers
• D. Mandatory documents that must be followed word for word

4. Under STCW Regulation I/8, each Party must ensure an independent evaluation of its knowledge, understanding, skills and competence acquisition and assessment activities at intervals of not more than:

• A. One year
• B. Three years
• C. Five years
• D. Ten years

5. The independent evaluation required by STCW Regulation I/8 must be conducted by qualified persons who are:

• A. Trainees of the institute
• B. Employed by the training institute being evaluated
• C. Selected by the course-in-charge
• D. Not themselves involved in the activities concerned

6. STCW Regulation I/8 requires quality standards systems to cover training and assessment activities carried out by:

• A. Both governmental and non-governmental agencies or entities under the Party's authority
• B. Shipping companies only
• C. Non-governmental agencies or entities only
• D. Government agencies only

7. Under STCW quality standards provisions, the qualifications and experience of instructors and assessors are:

• A. Required to be covered within the quality standards system
• B. Not relevant to QSS
• C. Only checked at the time of certificate revalidation
• D. Left to each instructor's discretion

8. Under Section A-I/6 of the STCW Code, an instructor using a simulator for training should have:

• A. Ten years of sea service
• B. Completed a computer science degree
• C. Received appropriate guidance in instructional techniques involving the use of simulators and gained operational experience on the particular type of simulator
• D. Only a certificate of competency

9. According to Section A-I/6, an assessor using a simulator for assessment of competence should have gained practical assessment experience on the particular type of simulator:

• A. Only during sea service
• B. Under the supervision and to the satisfaction of an experienced assessor
• C. By attending a manufacturer's sales presentation
• D. Through self-study

10. STCW Regulation I/12 makes simulator-based training mandatory for:

• A. Basic firefighting
• B. Radar and ARPA training
• C. Proficiency in survival craft
• D. Medical first aid

11. Which IMO model course addresses training of simulator trainers and assessors?

• A. Model Course 1.30
• B. Model Course 3.12
• C. Model Course 6.09
• D. Model Course 6.10

12. A simulator exercise should normally be followed by a debriefing, the main purpose of which is to:

• A. Switch off the simulator
• B. Record attendance
• C. Announce the next exercise
• D. Analyse the exercise with the trainees, reinforce correct actions and identify errors and lessons learned

13. Section A-I/12 requires a simulator used for training or assessment to provide an instructor or assessor interface that allows the instructor to:

• A. Only switch the simulator on and off
• B. Control, monitor and record exercises for effective debriefing
• C. Replace the briefing
• D. Print certificates

14. Before conducting an assessment on a simulator, the assessor should ensure that the candidate:

• A. Has been adequately familiarised with the simulator and its controls, and knows the performance criteria
• B. Is given no briefing
• C. Has not seen the simulator before
• D. Is assessed without any defined criteria

15. As per DGS STCW Circular 26 of 2018, the duration of the Vertical Integration Course for Trainers is:

• A. 30 hours (5 days)
• B. 60 hours (10 days)
• C. 90 hours (15 days)
• D. 120 hours (20 days)

16. Of the 60 hours of the VICT course, how many hours are allotted to activities?

• A. 24 hours
• B. 30 hours
• C. 36 hours
• D. 40 hours

17. What is the maximum course intake for one VICT batch as per the DGS guideline?

• A. 12 trainees
• B. 16 trainees
• C. 20 trainees
• D. 24 trainees

18. The minimum experience in maritime education and training required of VICT faculty, as per the DGS guideline, is:

• A. 2 years
• B. 3 years
• C. 5 years
• D. 10 years

19. Under the DGS VICT guideline, a trainee who is absent for more than one day must:

• A. Attend the missed lectures in the next batch
• B. Pay a penalty and continue
• C. Repeat the entire course
• D. Submit a written assignment

20. Within what period must a VICT trainee who was absent for up to one day attend the missed lectures in a subsequent batch at the same institute?

• A. 1 month
• B. 3 months
• C. 6 months
• D. 12 months

21. Assessment in the VICT course is to be based on the guidelines in:

• A. Section A-I/12 of the STCW Code
• B. Part E of IMO Model Course 6.09
• C. Part A of IMO Model Course 1.30
• D. DGS Order 5 of 2016 only

22. Minimum faculty requirement for a VICT batch as per the DGS guideline is:

• A. Three visiting faculty
• B. Four full-time faculty
• C. One faculty only
• D. Not less than two faculty including the course-in-charge, with at least 50% of the course covered by full-time faculty