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VITC exit exam questions and answers — Set 1

Set 1 of the Vertical Integration Course for Trainer (VITC) exit exam bank — 30 of 85 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

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Set 1 — 30 VITC exit exam questions with answers

1. Although the 1978 STCW Convention established good principles, the exception to the factor that reduced the effectiveness of the Convention is___________

  • A. The lack of interest in the Maritime profession and attitudes of seafarers.
  • B. The public concern regarding human errors in shipping disasters.
  • C. A mix of different education and training backgrounds of multinational manning.
  • D. The faster turn round of ships and reduced manning scales.
Answer: A — The lack of interest in the Maritime profession and attitudes of seafarers.
While public concern, mixed training backgrounds, and faster vessel turnarounds contributed to challenges, the lack of interest in the maritime profession and seafarer attitudes was not an exception factor reducing the effectiveness of the 1978 convention.

2. The 2006 amendments to Part A of the code , introducing, inter alia, new measures pertaining to 'ship security officers' were adopted by IMO and entered into force on;

  • A. 1st January 2007
  • B. 1st January 2009.
  • C. 1st January 2006
  • D. 1st January 2008
Answer: D — 1st January 2008
The 2006 amendments introducing mandatory measures for Ship Security Officers (SSOs) under STCW were adopted by IMO and entered into force on 1st January 2008.

3. The International Convention on STCW 1978 entered into force on________

  • A. 28th April 1978
  • B. 28th April 1984
  • C. 1st December 1992
  • D. 7th July 1978
Answer: B — 28th April 1984
The International Convention on Standards of Training, Certification and Watchkeeping for Seafarers (STCW), 1978 was adopted on 7 July 1978 and entered into force on 28 April 1984.

4. Recommended guidance regarding provisions of the STCW Convention and its annex are given in;

  • A. STCW Code B
  • B. STCW Code A.
  • C. STCW Convention
  • D. STCW Code A and STCW Code B
Answer: A — STCW Code B
In the STCW Code, Part A contains mandatory standards of competence, whereas Part B contains recommended guidance to assist Parties in implementing the Convention.

5. Mandatory Standards regarding provisions of the annex to the STCW Convention given in Part A has

  • A. Six Chapters
  • B. Eight chapters
  • C. Nine chapters
  • D. Seven chapters
Answer: B — Eight chapters
Part A of the STCW Code consists of eight chapters (Chapters I to VIII) corresponding directly to the eight chapters in the Annex to the STCW Convention.

6. Level of Competence -2, termed as 'operational level' is a broad range of varied activities performed in a variety of contexts, which are complex and non-routine. This is done under the direction of;

  • A. An individual serving in the operational level with sufficient seniority .
  • B. A group of individuals capable of giving guidance, basis their experience.
  • C. An individual at the management level for that area of responsibility.
  • D. The executives from the top management ashore, having adequate authority.
Answer: C — An individual at the management level for that area of responsibility.
Operational level duties involve performing complex, non-routine tasks under the direction of an individual serving at the management level for that specific area of responsibility.

7. The 1994 amendments relating to Global Maritime Distress and safety systems (GMDSS) on STCW convention 1978 was adopted by IMO on;

  • A. 7th July 1995
  • B. 1st December 1992
  • C. 1st December 1991.
  • D. 1st January 1991
Answer: B — 1st December 1992
The 1994 amendments relating to the Global Maritime Distress and Safety System (GMDSS) on the STCW 1978 convention were adopted on 1st December 1992 (entering into force in 1994).

8. The IMO conference which adopted resolutions numbering from 1 to 19 was in,

  • A. Malmo in Sweden
  • B. London in United Kingdom
  • C. Manila in Philippines
  • D. Geneva in Switzerland
Answer: C — Manila in Philippines
The 2010 Conference of Parties that adopted the Manila Amendments (and associated resolutions 1 to 19) was held in Manila, Philippines in June 2010.

9. conference of parties to the 1978 STCW convention was convened in June 2010 , to consider amendments to the 1978 STCW Convention and STCW Code

  • A. London in United Kingdom
  • B. Manila in Philippines
  • C. Geneva in Switzerland.
  • D. New York in the United States of America
Answer: B — Manila in Philippines
The 2010 Conference of Parties that adopted the Manila Amendments (and associated resolutions 1 to 19) was held in Manila, Philippines in June 2010.

10. The purpose of competency examinations for seafarers is to;

  • A. Assess the capacity of the seafarers to face the tough weather conditions at sea.
  • B. Measure the capability of a seafarer in handling exigencies at sea.
  • C. Assess the adequacy of training, knowledge, experience, skill and practical competence of seafarers.
  • D. Verify the expertise of the seafarer in operating a wide range and a diversified fleet of ship
Answer: C — Assess the adequacy of training, knowledge, experience, skill and practical competence of seafarers.
Competency examinations for seafarers are designed to assess the adequacy of training, knowledge, experience, skill, and practical competence required under STCW standards.

11. One of the key components of competence-based standards and qualifications is the assessment process. Assessment in the Maritime sector is the process of,

  • A. Finding the most talented candidates , capable to pursue the profession
  • B. Filtering and elimination of candidates, so as to increase competence.
  • C. Evaluation of candidates as per the industry needs .
  • D. Obtaining and comparing evidence of competence with the required standards.
Answer: D — Obtaining and comparing evidence of competence with the required standards.
Competency-based assessment is the systematic process of collecting and comparing evidence of a candidate's competence against established STCW performance criteria and standards.

12. In a competence-based assessment and certification system. individuals achieve a certificate, when they can;

  • A. Impress the assessors with their experiences and activities performed at sea.
  • B. persuade for a favorable consideration due to existing job vacancies
  • C. Convince the assessors of their capabilities to handle exigencies at sea
  • D. Demonstrate performance, which meets all the required competence standards
Answer: D — Demonstrate performance, which meets all the required competence standards
Under competency-based certification, candidates achieve certification by demonstrating that their performance meets all prescribed competence standards.

13. In the matching and judging stages of competence-based assessment, the following guidelines are helpful:

  • A. Sufficient evidence is generated in abnormal or unrealistic conditions.
  • B. The assessment process should be generic and comparable with other candidates
  • C. Both the assessor and candidate should be in a serious and tense stature during the assessment periods
  • D. Evidence should be traceable to the source and kept on record.
Answer: D — Evidence should be traceable to the source and kept on record.
In competence-based assessment, all evidence gathered during matching and judging stages must be traceable to its source and systematically kept on record.

14. Speakers , whether lecturers or instructors , while teaching in class should take care

  • A. to never pause or stop while speaking.
  • B. to be strict and serious on the subject, with no expressions.
  • C. to look at the class and keep eye contact with students.
  • D. to read everything in the book or notes, missing none.
Answer: C — to look at the class and keep eye contact with students.
The correct answer is "to look at the class and keep eye contact with students.". This question is part of the Vertical Integration Course for Trainers (VITC / IMO Model Course 6.09) curriculum under STCW guidelines for maritime instructors and assessors.

15. Trainees are more likely to remember learning activities that use more of their senses. Trainees remember

  • A. 50% of material they say
  • B. 10% of material they see
  • C. 30% of material they read
  • D. 20% of material they hear
Answer: D — 20% of material they hear
Educational research shows retention rates vary by sensory medium: learners typically remember ~20% of what they hear, 30% of what they see, 50% of what they hear and see, and up to 90% of what they say and do.

16. Seating arrangements can have an important influence on communication in the classroom. Arrangement with the best eye contact with all students will be a

  • A. Lecture Theatre type arrangement
  • B. Double "U" type arrangement.
  • C. 'U' type arrangement.
  • D. Classroom type arrangement
Answer: C — 'U' type arrangement.
A 'U'-shaped seating arrangement maximizes direct line of sight and eye contact between the instructor and all trainees, facilitating interactive group discussions.

17. Instructors should be aware of the "body language" in the class and that his/her movement sends a message to their trainees of the

  • A. method of trainer to attract attention.
  • B. expectations of the organisation from the trainees.
  • C. requirements of the trainer from the trainees.
  • D. confidence and experience of the trainer
Answer: D — confidence and experience of the trainer
An instructor's purposeful movement and open body language project confidence, subject mastery, and authority in the training environment.

18. The capabilities achieved by the trainee at the end of a course, is a measure of

  • A. the learning and knowledge of the course contents acquired by the trainee.
  • B. the knowledge and understanding of the trainer on the subject.
  • C. the method used by the trainer in teaching the subject.
  • D. the facilities allotted by the Institute to provide the training.
Answer: A — the learning and knowledge of the course contents acquired by the trainee.
Course outcomes and learner capabilities directly measure the learning, practical skills, and knowledge acquired by the trainee during the program.

19. Amongst the most common teaching aids used in a classroom, the oldest is a

  • A. Magnetic board.
  • B. Chalkboard
  • C. Flipchart
  • D. Whiteboard
Answer: B — Chalkboard
The traditional chalkboard is the oldest and most fundamental visual teaching aid utilized in classroom education.

20. The advantage of the fixed or roller type of chalkboards is that

  • A. for some persons, it can cause dust allergy.
  • B. it is spacious and easy to write and draw at a comfortable height.
  • C. corrections can be made every now and then.
  • D. students will copy the contents, before it is robbed off.
Answer: B — it is spacious and easy to write and draw at a comfortable height.
Fixed and roller chalkboards provide a spacious writing surface that allows clear drawing and writing at an ergonomic height.

21. As a part of training, suitable audio-visual materials should be presented for the trainee instructors to review. The main purpose of screening such videos-films shall be to

  • A. spent a part of the class time to avoid fatigue and concentration losses.
  • B. make the trainees answer a set of suitable questions after viewing the material.
  • C. make the teaching process easier with minimum effort and time
  • D. divert attention of the trainees from the subject, if found lengthy.
Answer: B — make the trainees answer a set of suitable questions after viewing the material.
Screening audio-visual content is most effective when paired with active learning tasks, such as having trainees answer structured review questions based on the video.

22. A most effective training session can be conducted with a selection of slides made available and

  • A. the trainee to review the slides and inform trainer a list of corrections to be done.
  • B. the trainer showing the slides for the trainees to view and understand themselves.
  • C. the trainee to view the slides when convenient and ask doubts if any from the trainer.
  • D. the trainee to prepare a preferred order for showing the slides with a brief commentary, which is to be reviewed
Answer: D — the trainee to prepare a preferred order for showing the slides with a brief commentary, which is to be reviewed
Active learning is enhanced when trainee instructors arrange slides in a logical pedagogical sequence with their own commentary for peer review.

23. The main objective of selecting the most appropriate teaching aids for the sessions shall be

  • A. to reduce the contribution by the trainer in the teaching process .
  • B. to make the teaching process more effective with appropriate end results.
  • C. to keep the training expenses as low as possible, irrespective of the quality of training.
  • D. to reduce the period of training with substantial financial savings
Answer: B — to make the teaching process more effective with appropriate end results.
The primary purpose of instructional media and teaching aids is to make the learning process more effective, engaging, and aligned with intended learning outcomes.

24. In a class question answer session, the trainer should conduct the class ideally by

  • A. punishing or insulting students giving wrong answers
  • B. allowing all the students to answer together, to get the majority answer
  • C. allowing the willing students only to answer every time.
  • D. asking questions individually, giving equal importance to all students.
Answer: D — asking questions individually, giving equal importance to all students.
Instructors should direct questions to individual learners across the classroom to ensure equal participation and verify individual understanding.

25. The effect of a lecture delivered in the class is largely dependent on;

  • A. the clarity, logic and the way the lecture is presented to suit the students understanding
  • B. a friendly and cordial approach of the trainer when delivering lectures
  • C. the age and the personality of the trainer who is delivering the lecture
  • D. the seriousness maintained in delivering the lecture in class.
Answer: A — the clarity, logic and the way the lecture is presented to suit the students understanding
The effectiveness of a lecture depends primarily on the clarity, logical structure, and pedagogical pacing adapted to the students' comprehension level.

26. The introduction of 'games' in teaching methods is considered effective mainly,

  • A. to remove the element of fatigue and boredom in the class.
  • B. to get trainees involved, creating interest in the subject, with an active element of competition
  • C. to divert the attention of the class from outside interferences or disturbances.
  • D. to comply with the criteria to fill the minimum hours of teaching.
Answer: B — to get trainees involved, creating interest in the subject, with an active element of competition
Educational games and simulation exercises promote active participation, healthy competition, and deep engagement with core concepts.

27. Delivering teaching sessions using a variety of styles is an activity designed to ensure that

  • A. the instructor is not sure of what method to use
  • B. the instructor has a real command of teaching methods
  • C. the instructor likes to change methods
  • D. the instructor likes to show his prowess
Answer: B — the instructor has a real command of teaching methods
Employing a diverse repertoire of instructional styles demonstrates an instructor's command of pedagogy and caters to varied learning styles.

28. One advantage of using 'games' in the teaching process is that,

  • A. the instructor can observe the trainees closely and can provide informal lessons .
  • B. the method requires a great deal of classroom control and infrastructure.
  • C. these games are not always simple and causes complication for assessments
  • D. commercially available games may not be suitable or can be too costly.
Answer: A — the instructor can observe the trainees closely and can provide informal lessons .
During instructional games, trainers can closely observe trainee dynamics, decision-making skills, and offer targeted informal coaching.

29. What is considered as a significant advantage in using simulator as a teaching aid?

  • A. Simulators are expensive and require adequate number of student's enrolment continuously.
  • B. Supervision can be difficult and is a time consuming exercise .
  • C. Students while working on simulators are aware that it is not a real situation and can afford to make mistakes
  • D. Simulation provides an ideal method for trainees to gain experience of dangerous or unusual situations.
Answer: D — Simulation provides an ideal method for trainees to gain experience of dangerous or unusual situations.
Maritime simulators provide a realistic, safe environment where trainees can practice critical emergency responses and complex maneuvers without real-world risk.

30. In the beginning of a class, the instructor should cover the following:

  • A. Compare with otber courses
  • B. An overview of the Lesson
  • C. Career prospects after the course
  • D. Background of the course
Answer: B — An overview of the Lesson
At the start of an instructional session, providing an overview or stating the intended learning objectives sets clear learning expectations.

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